Nursing Elites

1. A client reports unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. What complication is the nurse most concerned about?

• A. Monitor for signs of a pulmonary embolism.
• B. Assess for signs of dehydration.
• C. Monitor for signs of compartment syndrome.
• D. Check the client’s oxygen saturation levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Unilateral leg swelling following a long flight may indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate attention. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, potentially blocking blood flow and leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dehydration, compartment syndrome, and oxygen saturation levels are not typically associated with unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. While dehydration can cause leg cramps, compartment syndrome is more commonly associated with trauma or injury, and oxygen saturation levels are not the primary concern in this scenario.

2. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Assess for signs of infection.
• B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
• C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
• D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.

3. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Use a glucometer to check glucose level.
• B. Teach client to measure weight accurately.
• C. Explain that medication dose may need to be increased.
• D. Reassure client weight will increase as viral load decreases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.

4. A female client experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is taken to the emergency department. Initial assessment indicates her blood glucose level is critically low. Once stabilized, she reports being treated for anorexia nervosa. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
• B. Encourage her to join a group focusing on self-esteem.
• C. Schedule an outpatient psychosocial assessment.
• D. Teach relaxation techniques to manage stress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Joining a group that focuses on self-esteem is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan. This can help the client address underlying emotional issues related to her anorexia nervosa and improve her mental health. Choice A is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may not address the psychological factors contributing to anorexia nervosa. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an outpatient psychosocial assessment is important but not the most crucial intervention for discharge planning in this case. Choice D is also not the priority as teaching relaxation techniques, although beneficial, may not directly address the self-esteem and emotional issues that need to be tackled in this situation.

5. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
• B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
• C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
• D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.

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