HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help him sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Determine the client’s sleep and activity pattern
- B. Obtain a prescription for the client to take when stressed
- C. Refer the client for a sleep study and neurological follow-up
- D. Teach coping strategies to use when feeling stressed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Teaching coping strategies is an appropriate first intervention for a client experiencing sleep difficulties and stress. It can help manage stress and improve sleep without immediately resorting to medication. By teaching coping strategies, the nurse empowers the client to address the underlying issues contributing to his sleep problems rather than just providing a temporary solution. Referring for a sleep study and neurological follow-up may be considered later if the client's sleep issues persist despite implementing coping strategies. Determining the client’s sleep and activity pattern may be helpful but addressing coping strategies is more beneficial in managing stress-related sleep issues. Obtaining a prescription for the client to take when stressed does not address the root cause of the sleep problem and may lead to dependency on medication rather than promoting long-term solutions.
2. When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Loosen the right wrist restraint.
- B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand.
- C. Compare hand color bilaterally.
- D. Palpate the right radial pulse.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A) because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicate decreased circulation. Comparing hand color bilaterally (C) and palpating the right radial pulse (D) are important assessments to gather more information, but they do not have the priority of addressing the decreased circulation by loosening the restraint. Applying a pulse oximeter (B) is not indicated in this scenario as it measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, which is not relevant when cyanosis is related to mechanical compression from the restraints.
3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
4. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?
- A. 14
- B. 16
- C. 17
- D. 28
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.
5. What action should be implemented to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for an immobile client?
- A. Maintain the client in a lateral position using protective wrist and vest restraints.
- B. Position the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm.
- C. Raise the head and knee gatch when lying in a supine position.
- D. Transfer the client to a wheelchair close to the nursing station for observation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm helps maintain proper alignment and provides optimal pressure relief over the sacral area, reducing the risk of developing a pressure ulcer. This position redistributes pressure away from bony prominences, such as the sacrum, which is crucial in preventing ulcer formation in immobile clients. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to further complications and does not address pressure relief. Choice C is incorrect as raising the head and knee gatch in a supine position does not directly alleviate pressure over the sacrum. Choice D is incorrect as transferring to a wheelchair does not address pressure relief or optimal positioning to prevent sacral ulcers.
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