a male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night the client reports having a male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night the client reports having
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help him sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching coping strategies is an appropriate first intervention for a client experiencing sleep difficulties and stress. It can help manage stress and improve sleep without immediately resorting to medication. By teaching coping strategies, the nurse empowers the client to address the underlying issues contributing to his sleep problems rather than just providing a temporary solution. Referring for a sleep study and neurological follow-up may be considered later if the client's sleep issues persist despite implementing coping strategies. Determining the client’s sleep and activity pattern may be helpful but addressing coping strategies is more beneficial in managing stress-related sleep issues. Obtaining a prescription for the client to take when stressed does not address the root cause of the sleep problem and may lead to dependency on medication rather than promoting long-term solutions.

2. While assessing a client who is admitted with heart failure and pulmonary edema, the nurse identifies dependent peripheral edema, an irregular heart rate, and a persistent cough that produces pink blood-tinged sputum. After initiating continuous telemetry and positioning the client, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's cough producing pink, frothy sputum is indicative of pulmonary edema, which needs immediate treatment. Obtaining a sputum sample helps identify any infection that may be contributing to the pulmonary issues. Administering diuretics is essential in managing pulmonary edema but obtaining a sputum sample should take priority. Intubation may be necessary in severe cases but is not the initial intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to diagnose and treat the condition is crucial.

3. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

4. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.

Similar Questions

The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?
A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
A client is experiencing shortness of breath and wheezing. What is the nurse's first action?

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