Nursing Elites

1. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help him sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine the client’s sleep and activity pattern
• B. Obtain a prescription for the client to take when stressed
• C. Refer the client for a sleep study and neurological follow-up
• D. Teach coping strategies to use when feeling stressed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching coping strategies is an appropriate first intervention for a client experiencing sleep difficulties and stress. It can help manage stress and improve sleep without immediately resorting to medication. By teaching coping strategies, the nurse empowers the client to address the underlying issues contributing to his sleep problems rather than just providing a temporary solution. Referring for a sleep study and neurological follow-up may be considered later if the client's sleep issues persist despite implementing coping strategies. Determining the client’s sleep and activity pattern may be helpful but addressing coping strategies is more beneficial in managing stress-related sleep issues. Obtaining a prescription for the client to take when stressed does not address the root cause of the sleep problem and may lead to dependency on medication rather than promoting long-term solutions.

2. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the client from the bed to a chair.
• B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair.
• C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three.
• D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist the client to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.

3. The nurse is attempting to pass an indwelling catheter in an adult male and is having difficulty. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse?

• A. Remove the catheter and reinsert it with the client positioned differently.
• B. Try a straight catheter instead.
• C. Try a smaller catheter.
• D. Discontinue the procedure and notify the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If resistance is encountered, the nurse should discontinue the procedure and notify the physician, as this may indicate an obstruction.

4. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

• A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
• B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
• D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

5. The client is reviewing the signed operative consent with a nurse, who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the consent form should say the removal of a lipoma on the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the surgical team of the client’s confusion
• B. Have the client sign a new surgical consent
• C. Add the correct leg information to the consent form
• D. Inform the surgeon about the client’s concern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should inform the surgeon about the client’s concern immediately. This is important to ensure that the correct procedure is performed on the intended leg. Communication with the surgeon is crucial to address any discrepancies in the consent form and prevent errors during the surgical procedure. Having the surgeon clarify and correct the consent form is essential to maintain patient safety and uphold the principles of informed consent.

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