a male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night the client reports having
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help him sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching coping strategies is an appropriate first intervention for a client experiencing sleep difficulties and stress. It can help manage stress and improve sleep without immediately resorting to medication. By teaching coping strategies, the nurse empowers the client to address the underlying issues contributing to his sleep problems rather than just providing a temporary solution. Referring for a sleep study and neurological follow-up may be considered later if the client's sleep issues persist despite implementing coping strategies. Determining the client’s sleep and activity pattern may be helpful but addressing coping strategies is more beneficial in managing stress-related sleep issues. Obtaining a prescription for the client to take when stressed does not address the root cause of the sleep problem and may lead to dependency on medication rather than promoting long-term solutions.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.

3. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client's neurologic status next. The client's statement about aliens and subsequent falling asleep could be indicative of a potential neurological issue such as confusion or altered mental status. It is essential to assess the client's neurological status to determine the underlying cause of the client's statement and behavior. This assessment will help the nurse identify any potential cognitive impairment or neurological deficits that may need immediate attention, ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Notifying the surgeon or involving the client's family can be considered later, but the priority is to assess the client's neurologic status to address any immediate concerns.

4. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

5. The healthcare provider receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first intervention should be to check the drainage tubing for a kink. This step is crucial as any kinks in the tubing could obstruct urine flow, leading to a decreased output. By ensuring the tubing is free from any obstructions, the healthcare provider can address a potential mechanical issue causing the low output before considering other interventions. Reviewing the intake and output record may provide valuable information but should come after ensuring the tubing is clear. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done later if needed, but the immediate concern is to check for any obstructions. Giving the client water to drink may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence.

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