Nursing Elites

1. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help him sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine the client’s sleep and activity pattern
• B. Obtain a prescription for the client to take when stressed
• C. Refer the client for a sleep study and neurological follow-up
• D. Teach coping strategies to use when feeling stressed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching coping strategies is an appropriate first intervention for a client experiencing sleep difficulties and stress. It can help manage stress and improve sleep without immediately resorting to medication. By teaching coping strategies, the nurse empowers the client to address the underlying issues contributing to his sleep problems rather than just providing a temporary solution. Referring for a sleep study and neurological follow-up may be considered later if the client's sleep issues persist despite implementing coping strategies. Determining the client’s sleep and activity pattern may be helpful but addressing coping strategies is more beneficial in managing stress-related sleep issues. Obtaining a prescription for the client to take when stressed does not address the root cause of the sleep problem and may lead to dependency on medication rather than promoting long-term solutions.

2. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?

• A. Continue gabapentin.
• B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
• C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
• D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.

3. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?

• A. Number of staff-induced injuries
• B. Client satisfaction survey
• C. Healthcare-associated infection rate
• D. Rate of needle-stick injuries by nurses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - Healthcare-associated infection rate. Acrylic nails can harbor bacteria, increasing the risk of healthcare-associated infections. By implementing a policy to remove acrylic nails, the goal is to reduce the infection rate. Monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate will provide a direct measure of the policy's effectiveness in achieving its intended outcome. This measure is more specific and directly related to the objective of reducing the risk of infections compared to the other choices.

4. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]

• A. 4 tablets
• B. 3 tablets
• C. 2 tablets
• D. 1 tablet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.

5. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

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