Nursing Elites

1. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'spiritual distress.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

• A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis.
• B. Reassure the client that their faith will be regained with time and support.
• C. Consult with the staff chaplain and request that the chaplain visit with the client.
• D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is going through spiritual distress, employing reflective listening techniques is crucial. This method allows the client to voice their concerns and emotions, providing them with a supportive environment to explore their feelings. Options A and B do not directly address the client's spiritual distress and may undermine the client's feelings. While option C involves a chaplain, using reflective listening directly involves the nurse in addressing and supporting the client's spiritual concerns.

2. A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?

• A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
• B. ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretative Statements
• C. ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice
• D. Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice are essential guidelines for nursing practice in various specialties, including mental health. The document outlines the expectations and responsibilities of nurses in providing high-quality care within their specific practice areas. In the context of opening a mental health services department, using the Scope and Standards specific to psychiatric–mental health nursing would ensure that the unit's nursing guidelines align with best practices and professional standards in mental health care. Choices A, B, and D are not focused on providing specific guidelines for nursing practice in a mental health services department, making them incorrect options.

3. The healthcare provider assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the healthcare provider do next?

• A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
• B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
• C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
• D. Flush with normal saline and recount the drop rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate next step for the healthcare provider is to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. These issues can commonly cause a slowed IV rate. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may not address the underlying problem of kinked tubing or incorrect IV pole height. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) is important for securement but is not the priority in this situation. Flushing with normal saline and recounting the drop rate (Choice D) should only be done after ruling out mechanical issues like kinks in the tubing.

4. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client’s responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum sodium level.
• B. Serum potassium level.
• C. Serum calcium level.
• D. Serum glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.

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