Nursing Elites

1. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'spiritual distress.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

• A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis.
• B. Reassure the client that their faith will be regained with time and support.
• C. Consult with the staff chaplain and request that the chaplain visit with the client.
• D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is going through spiritual distress, employing reflective listening techniques is crucial. This method allows the client to voice their concerns and emotions, providing them with a supportive environment to explore their feelings. Options A and B do not directly address the client's spiritual distress and may undermine the client's feelings. While option C involves a chaplain, using reflective listening directly involves the nurse in addressing and supporting the client's spiritual concerns.

2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

3. The client reports still being unable to sleep a week after learning progressive muscle relaxation techniques. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to add regular exercise to the daily routine.
• B. Determine if the client has been keeping a sleep diary.
• C. Encourage the client to continue the routine until sleep is achieved.
• D. Ask the client to describe the routine currently followed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine, the nurse can evaluate if the technique is being correctly implemented before considering further interventions. This choice is correct as it focuses on assessing the client's current practice. Option A is incorrect as adding regular exercise may not address the issue with the relaxation technique. Option B is incorrect as determining if the client has been keeping a sleep diary does not directly address the efficacy of the relaxation technique. Option C is incorrect as blindly encouraging the client to continue may not be the best approach without understanding how the technique is being practiced.

4. The client has received a new diagnosis of heart failure, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• C. Limit fluid intake to 1.5 liters per day.
• D. Increase intake of foods high in vitamin K.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding foods high in sodium (choice B) is essential for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid retention and decrease the strain on the heart. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, exacerbating heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium intake (choice A) can be harmful in heart failure if not monitored closely as it can affect heart rhythm. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but the specific amount should be individualized based on the client's condition. Increasing vitamin K intake (choice D) is not a primary concern in heart failure management and is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants to manage blood clotting.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

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