Nursing Elites

1. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'spiritual distress.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

• A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis.
• B. Reassure the client that their faith will be regained with time and support.
• C. Consult with the staff chaplain and request that the chaplain visit with the client.
• D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is going through spiritual distress, employing reflective listening techniques is crucial. This method allows the client to voice their concerns and emotions, providing them with a supportive environment to explore their feelings. Options A and B do not directly address the client's spiritual distress and may undermine the client's feelings. While option C involves a chaplain, using reflective listening directly involves the nurse in addressing and supporting the client's spiritual concerns.

2. A client in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease is very anxious and frequently asks about her deceased parents. Which intervention should the nurse implement to reduce the client’s anxiety?

• A. Remind the client that her parents have passed away
• B. Ask the client about her favorite memories with her parents
• C. Engage the client in an activity to distract her from thinking about her parents
• D. Reorient the client to the present reality and surroundings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Engaging the client in an activity to distract her from thinking about her deceased parents is the most appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety. This approach helps shift the focus away from distressing thoughts and can provide comfort and a sense of calm to the client.

3. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

4. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

• A. Superficial veins are more easily found in the feet and ankles.
• B. A decreased flow rate could lead to thrombosis formation.
• C. It is more challenging to move a cannulated extremity when using the leg or foot.
• D. Veins in the feet and ankles are located deep, making the procedure more painful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.

5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory test should the nurse expect to be ordered to determine if the client is experiencing another MI?

• A. Troponin
• B. Myoglobin
• C. CK-MB
• D. C-reactive protein

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific and sensitive laboratory test for detecting myocardial infarction (MI). It is released when there is damage to the heart muscle, making it a valuable marker for diagnosing another MI. Myoglobin and CK-MB can also be elevated in MI, but troponin is preferred due to its higher specificity. C-reactive protein is a marker of inflammation and not specific to MI.

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