HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
- B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
- C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
- D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to educate the client on the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation. Although it's crucial to respect the client's beliefs, providing education ensures the client receives accurate information to make informed decisions about her hygiene practices. By offering teaching first, the nurse can address any misconceptions or concerns the client may have while promoting optimal hygiene practices for overall well-being. Choice A should not be the first action as it does not address the client's potential misinformation about hygiene. Choice B is not ideal as it only offers a temporary solution without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C is not the priority as the immediate concern is the client's personal hygiene practices.
2. The healthcare professional is monitoring a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which assessment finding should prompt the healthcare professional to immediately stop the infusion?
- A. The client reports pain at the IV site
- B. The client’s heart rate is irregular
- C. The client has swelling at the IV site
- D. The client’s blood pressure is elevated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An irregular heart rate is a critical sign of hyperkalemia, a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Stopping the infusion promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. The healthcare professional should inform the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because pain at the IV site is common and may not necessitate stopping the infusion. Choice C is incorrect as swelling at the IV site may indicate a local reaction but is not a reason to stop the infusion. Choice D is incorrect as an elevated blood pressure alone is not a direct indication to stop the infusion of IV potassium chloride.
3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.
4. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?
- A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
- B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
- C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
- D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.
5. The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?
- A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
- B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
- C. The client is placed in a prone position.
- D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.
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