the nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd how to use pursed lip breathing what is the purpose of this technique
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught pursed-lip breathing by the nurse. What is the purpose of this technique?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is used to increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled (C) in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By doing so, it helps prevent air trapping and enhances gas exchange, ultimately improving respiratory efficiency. While removing secretions (A) and reducing air trapping (B) can be associated benefits to some extent, the primary goal of pursed-lip breathing is to optimize carbon dioxide elimination and enhance breathing mechanics. Slowing the respiratory rate (D) is not the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing.

2. The caregiver learns the use of a gait belt from the nurse for a woman with right-sided weakness. The caregiver demonstrates the skill. Which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned how to perform this procedure correctly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Standing on the weak side of the client and holding the gait belt from the back provides better security and support during ambulation, reducing the risk of falls. This positioning allows the caregiver to offer stability and assistance without interfering with the client's movement, ensuring safe ambulation for the client with right-sided weakness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal support and security needed for a client with right-sided weakness. Standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back is the most effective way to assist the client while minimizing the risk of falls.

3. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

4. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.

5. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

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