Nursing Elites

1. A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?

• A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
• B. Encourage the client to rest.
• C. Plan an activity involving physical exercise.
• D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for a male client with schizophrenia who is diaphoretic and pacing the hallway is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. Diaphoresis and pacing can be indicators of agitation or distress in clients with schizophrenia. Careful observation is crucial to monitor the client's safety, assess for any potential escalation of symptoms, and provide timely intervention if needed. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for safety and observation. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) may not be effective if the client is agitated. Planning an activity involving physical exercise (Choice C) could potentially exacerbate the situation rather than addressing the immediate need for observation and safety.

2. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

• A. Teach signs of infection
• B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
• C. Educate on humidifying air
• D. Discuss the use of a speaking valve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Tracheal suctioning is crucial for maintaining a clear airway in clients with a tracheostomy. Without proper suctioning, secretions can accumulate and cause airway obstruction or respiratory infections. Educating the client on how to perform suctioning safely is a priority for discharge planning. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of tracheostomy care, but teaching tracheal suctioning techniques takes precedence due to its direct impact on airway patency and preventing complications.

3. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
• D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

4. A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Bilirubin level
• B. Serum ammonia level
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Albumin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum ammonia level. Lactulose is used to lower serum ammonia levels in clients with chronic liver disease, particularly in cases of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the action or evaluation of lactulose in chronic liver disease.

5. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

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