HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?
- A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
- B. Encourage the client to rest.
- C. Plan an activity involving physical exercise.
- D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for a male client with schizophrenia who is diaphoretic and pacing the hallway is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. Diaphoresis and pacing can be indicators of agitation or distress in clients with schizophrenia. Careful observation is crucial to monitor the client's safety, assess for any potential escalation of symptoms, and provide timely intervention if needed. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for safety and observation. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) may not be effective if the client is agitated. Planning an activity involving physical exercise (Choice C) could potentially exacerbate the situation rather than addressing the immediate need for observation and safety.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime for best results.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.
3. When asking an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to assist a 69-year-old surgical client to ambulate for the first time, which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Have the client sit on the side of the bed for at least 2 minutes before helping him stand.
- B. If the client is dizzy on standing, ask him to take some deep breaths.
- C. Assist the client to the bathroom at least twice on this shift.
- D. After you assist him to the chair, let me know how he feels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allowing the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing helps prevent dizziness and falls, especially during their first ambulation post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client to take deep breaths when feeling dizzy may not address the underlying cause of the dizziness. Choice C is incorrect as it is unrelated to the task of assisting the client to ambulate for the first time. Choice D is incorrect because knowing how the client feels after sitting in the chair does not address the important step of assisting the client to stand up for the first time.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal muscle
- C. Vastus lateralis muscle
- D. Dorsogluteal muscle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.
5. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?
- A. The client has been taking multiple medications
- B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
- C. The client's vital signs are stable
- D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access