a male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway what is the most important intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for a male client with schizophrenia who is diaphoretic and pacing the hallway is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. Diaphoresis and pacing can be indicators of agitation or distress in clients with schizophrenia. Careful observation is crucial to monitor the client's safety, assess for any potential escalation of symptoms, and provide timely intervention if needed. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for safety and observation. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) may not be effective if the client is agitated. Planning an activity involving physical exercise (Choice C) could potentially exacerbate the situation rather than addressing the immediate need for observation and safety.

2. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.

3. Prior to obtaining a trapeze bar for a client with limited mobility, which client assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper body muscle strength. The ability to use a trapeze bar requires adequate upper body strength to support the weight and facilitate repositioning. While assessing pain, coordination, and cognitive status are important, the priority is determining if the client can physically manage the trapeze bar safely. Without sufficient upper body muscle strength, the client may not be able to use the trapeze bar effectively and safely. Assessing balance and coordination is also important but secondary to ensuring the client has the required upper body strength. Cognitive status is crucial for understanding instructions related to using the trapeze bar, but it is not the most critical assessment in this scenario. Pain assessment is essential for overall care but does not directly impact the client's ability to use a trapeze bar like upper body muscle strength does.

4. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.

5. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.

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