Nursing Elites

1. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?

• A. Autosomal dominant
• B. Autosomal recessive
• C. X-linked recessive
• D. Mitochondrial

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.

2. During the admission procedure of a 6-year-old, the child states, 'I’m going to have an operation.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this child?

• A. Are you scared?
• B. We’re going to do everything we can to take very good care of you.
• C. Tell me what an operation is.
• D. I’m glad your mother told you why you were coming to the hospital.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide reassurance and express care to alleviate the child's anxiety about the upcoming operation. By reassuring the child that everything will be done to take very good care of them, the nurse helps build trust and comfort, creating a positive and supportive environment for the child.

3. The healthcare provider is providing preconception counseling. Which supplement should the provider recommend to help prevent the occurrence of anencephaly?

• A. Folic Acid.
• B. Calcium.
• C. Iron.
• D. Vitamin D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy is crucial for reducing the risk of neural tube defects, including anencephaly. Anencephaly is a severe birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull. Folic acid plays a key role in neural tube development and can significantly lower the chances of such defects when taken prior to conception and in early pregnancy.

4. A client with no prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, 'The baby is coming!' The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the LPN/LVN to obtain?

• A. Gravidity and parity.
• B. Time and amount of last oral intake.
• C. Date of last normal menstrual period.
• D. Frequency and intensity of contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining the date of the last normal menstrual period is crucial in estimating the gestational age of the fetus. This information helps in determining the progression of labor and the management of delivery. It also assists healthcare providers in assessing the overall health of the mother and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are important in labor assessment, but in this scenario, the most crucial information needed is the date of the last normal menstrual period to estimate the gestational age.

5. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

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