a healthcare provider is performing a sterile procedure at a clients bedside near the end of the procedure the nurse observes the healthcare provider
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Quizlet Fundamentals

1. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.

2. The healthcare professional is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client with an antecubital saline lock. After opening the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should be taken first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client's arm is the initial action to take when encountering an obstruction with an antecubital saline lock. Repositioning may correct any bending at the elbow that could be causing the obstruction, allowing for smoother infusion flow. Checking for a blood return, removing the IV site dressing, or flushing the lock with saline would be subsequent actions once the obstruction is addressed. Checking for a blood return is done to confirm proper placement, removing the IV site dressing is necessary for site assessment, and flushing the lock with saline helps maintain patency but should not be the first action when an obstruction is detected.

3. A client with stage 4 lung cancer receiving in-home hospice care expresses concerns about pain while the nurse is arranging for discharge. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing pain for a client with stage 4 lung cancer in hospice care, providing a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use is essential. This approach ensures continuous pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. By having a consistent dosing schedule, the client can maintain a more stable level of pain relief, enhancing their comfort and quality of life during this critical time.

4. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedbound with a foley catheter and enteral tube feeds. Which change from the client warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage indicates infection at the insertion site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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