Nursing Elites

1. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Report the incident to the supervisor for aseptic technique violation.
• B. Allow the completion of the procedure.
• C. Inquire about the contamination of the glove and sterile field.
• D. Identify the breach in surgical asepsis and provide a new set of sterile supplies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.

2. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

3. You are assigned to teach a student how to suction an adult patient with a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions by the student would be incorrect?

• A. Pre-oxygenating the patient with a Resuscibag at 100% O2 several times before suctioning.
• B. Maintaining wall suction pressure at 110-150 mmHg.
• C. Not suctioning for greater than 10-15 seconds at a time.
• D. Applying gentle intermittent pressure and rotating the catheter during the insertion phase of suctioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The incorrect action by the student is applying gentle intermittent pressure and rotating the catheter during the insertion phase of suctioning. This technique can cause trauma to the tracheal walls, increasing the risk of injury to the patient. It is essential to perform suctioning gently and without rotation to prevent complications in patients with a tracheostomy. Pre-oxygenating the patient, maintaining appropriate suction pressure, and limiting suctioning time are all correct actions when suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy.

4. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. What instruction should the nurse provide to prepare the client for the procedure?

• A. Drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure
• B. Take a laxative the morning of the procedure
• C. Eat a light meal before the procedure
• D. Avoid drinking fluids for 4 hours before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for preparing a client for a colonoscopy is to drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure. This step helps to ensure the bowel is adequately cleared for the colonoscopy, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon.

5. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

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