a healthcare provider is performing a sterile procedure at a clients bedside near the end of the procedure the nurse observes the healthcare provider
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Quizlet Fundamentals

1. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.

2. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the priority intervention for a client with pulmonary edema to improve oxygenation and address respiratory distress. Adequate oxygenation is essential to support vital organ function. Administering furosemide intravenously, inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are important interventions but are secondary to ensuring optimal oxygenation in this client with pulmonary edema.

4. A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.

5. Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate method to confirm the proper placement of a nasogastric tube is by examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. This visual assessment allows healthcare providers to directly visualize the position of the tube in relation to anatomical landmarks, ensuring it is correctly placed in the stomach. Aspirating gastric contents or hearing air pass may provide some information but are not as definitive as a chest x-ray for confirming placement. Checking the remaining length of tubing is not a reliable method for determining proper placement as it does not indicate where the tip of the tube lies within the body.

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