Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Oliguria.
• B. Kussmaul respirations.
• C. Fruity odor on the breath.
• D. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.

2. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?

• A. 14
• B. 16
• C. 17
• D. 28

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.

3. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia, the nurse should monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. These values indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which directly relates to the treatment of anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.

4. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's weight increases by 1 kg in 24 hours.
• B. The client's peritoneal effluent is cloudy.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client's peritoneal effluent is clear and pale yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy peritoneal effluent (B) is a sign of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. It indicates the presence of peritonitis, a severe complication that requires prompt intervention. Weight gain (A) may indicate fluid overload but is not as urgent as a potential infection. Elevated blood pressure (C) is a common finding in clients with kidney disease and needs monitoring but does not require immediate reporting. Clear and pale yellow effluent (D) is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

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