Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Oliguria.
• B. Kussmaul respirations.
• C. Fruity odor on the breath.
• D. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid activities that increase the risk of falls.
• C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin D supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding activities that increase the risk of falls (B) is the most crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more susceptible to fractures from falls. While increasing calcium intake (A) is important for bone health, avoiding falls takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight (C) is not directly related to osteoporosis management. Increasing vitamin D supplements (D) is beneficial for bone health, but fall prevention is more critical in this scenario.

3. When a client has suffered severe burns all over his body, the most effective method of monitoring the cardiovascular system is:

• A. Cuff blood pressure.
• B. Arterial pressure.
• C. Pulmonary artery pressure.
• D. Central venous pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring is the most effective method to assess fluid status and the cardiovascular system in a client with severe burns. Severe burns can lead to significant fluid shifts and hemodynamic changes, making central venous pressure monitoring crucial for guiding fluid resuscitation and managing cardiovascular stability in these patients.

4. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

5. A client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which assessment finding is most commonly associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Headache
• B. Dizziness
• C. Fatigue
• D. Edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache (A) is the most commonly associated symptom with primary hypertension due to increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to headaches. While dizziness (B), fatigue (C), and edema (D) may also occur in hypertension, headache is the most frequently reported symptom among individuals with primary hypertension.

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