Nursing Elites

1. Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

• A. Gastric atony
• B. Urinary strictures
• C. Neurogenic atony
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) should not be administered to clients with urinary strictures as it can contract the bladder and increase pressure within the urinary tract. In individuals with urinary strictures, this elevated pressure may lead to bladder rupture. Therefore, caution is advised when considering the use of Bethanechol chloride in clients with urinary strictures to prevent potential complications. Gastric atony, neurogenic atony, and gastroesophageal reflux are not contraindications for the administration of Bethanechol chloride for urinary retention.

2. During an admission assessment, a client informs the nurse that they take propylthiouracil (PTU) daily. Based on this information, the nurse suspects that the client has a history of:

• A. Myxedema
• B. Graves' disease
• C. Addison's disease
• D. Cushing's syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. The client mentioning the daily use of PTU indicates that they likely have a history of Graves' disease, as this medication helps manage the condition by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Graves' disease. Choice A, Myxedema, is incorrect as it refers to a condition of severe hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Choices C and D, Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome, respectively, are unrelated to the use of PTU or hyperthyroidism, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

4. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?

• A. At noon
• B. At bedtime
• C. Early morning
• D. Anytime, at the same time each day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.

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