Nursing Elites

1. A client receives a prescription for methocarbamol (Robaxin), and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the medication. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instructions?

• A. My urine may turn brown or green.
• B. This medication is prescribed to help relieve my muscle spasms.
• C. If my vision becomes blurred, I need to be concerned about it.
• D. I need to call my doctor if I experience nasal congestion from this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because blurred vision is an adverse effect of methocarbamol (Robaxin) and should be reported to a healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Option A informs the client about a possible discoloration of urine, which is a known side effect. Option B correctly explains the purpose of the medication. Option D correctly advises the client to contact their doctor if they experience nasal congestion, which could indicate an adverse reaction.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

3. A client is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for a trichomoniasis infection. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase fluid intake to prevent kidney stones.
• D. Report any gastrointestinal upset to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and headache. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects. Avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent these reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. The other options are not directly related to the specific medication or the condition being treated.

4. A client is taking cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec). The nurse checks for which of the following side effects of this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Excitability
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Excess salivation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec) is known to commonly cause drowsiness or sedation as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of drowsiness when administering this medication. Choice A, Diarrhea, is not a common side effect of cetirizine. Choice B, Excitability, is not a typical side effect of this antihistamine; instead, it tends to cause drowsiness. Choice D, Excess salivation, is not associated with cetirizine use.

5. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

Similar Questions