Nursing Elites

1. A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mother enters the labor suite and says in a loud voice, 'I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to stop speaking for the client.
• B. Notify the charge nurse of the situation.
• C. Request that the mother leave the room.
• D. Request security to remove her from the room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to request that the mother leave the room. This is important to maintain a calm environment and allow the healthcare team to assess and manage the situation without interference. Option A is not the best choice as it may escalate the situation. Option B, notifying the charge nurse, could be considered after addressing the immediate need to remove the mother from the room. Option D, requesting security to remove her, is not necessary at this point and may further escalate the situation unnecessarily.

2. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
• B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
• C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.

3. While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

• A. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly
• B. Frequent monitoring helps ensure the medication is effective
• C. It is standard protocol for all hospitalized children
• D. We need to monitor for any potential kidney damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly.' Acute glomerulonephritis can lead to significant hypertension, making it crucial to monitor blood pressure frequently to promptly identify any elevation. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring can help assess medication effectiveness, the primary reason for frequent blood pressure checks in this case is to detect elevated blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as not all hospitalized children require such frequent blood pressure monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure is to detect hypertension, rather than solely focusing on potential kidney damage.

4. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis with a Glasgow Coma Scale score change from 10 to 7.
• B. Myxedema coma with a blood pressure change from 80/50 to 70/40.
• C. Viral meningitis with a temperature change from 101°F to 102°F.
• D. Subdural hematoma with a blood pressure change from 150/80 to 170/60.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101°F to 102°F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.

5. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

• A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
• B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
• C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
• D. Initiate fall precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.

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