Nursing Elites

1. A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mother enters the labor suite and says in a loud voice, 'I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to stop speaking for the client.
• B. Notify the charge nurse of the situation.
• C. Request that the mother leave the room.
• D. Request security to remove her from the room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to request that the mother leave the room. This is important to maintain a calm environment and allow the healthcare team to assess and manage the situation without interference. Option A is not the best choice as it may escalate the situation. Option B, notifying the charge nurse, could be considered after addressing the immediate need to remove the mother from the room. Option D, requesting security to remove her, is not necessary at this point and may further escalate the situation unnecessarily.

2. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

• A. Avoid exposure to respiratory infections.
• B. Use relaxation exercises when anxious.
• C. Continue physical therapy at home.
• D. Plan short, frequent rest periods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome is to avoid exposure to respiratory infections. Guillain-Barre syndrome can affect the respiratory system, making infections particularly dangerous. While relaxation exercises, physical therapy, and rest periods are beneficial for overall well-being and recovery, preventing respiratory infections takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening complications associated with respiratory compromise in Guillain-Barre syndrome.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing shortness of breath and has a prescription for oxygen therapy. What is the maximum amount of oxygen the nurse should administer without a healthcare provider's order?

• A. 2 liters per minute
• B. 4 liters per minute
• C. 6 liters per minute
• D. 8 liters per minute

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 4 liters per minute. Without a healthcare provider's order, the nurse should administer a maximum of 4 liters per minute of oxygen to prevent carbon dioxide retention in COPD clients. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity and worsen the client's condition. Choices A, C, and D exceed the safe limit for oxygen administration without a healthcare provider's order.

4. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
• D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.

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