Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• D. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial to evaluate kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure due to decreased cardiac output and renal perfusion. Serum sodium levels (choice A) are important but are more closely associated with fluid balance and heart failure exacerbation. Serum potassium (choice B) is also important to monitor, but it is more closely linked to cardiac arrhythmias rather than kidney function. Serum glucose levels (choice D) are significant but are not the priority for monitoring in left-sided heart failure.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• C. Presence of a new murmur
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Subcutaneous emphysema
• D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the most critical finding requiring immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can lead to respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 94% is slightly low but may not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be a normal finding post-procedure. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube output and does not indicate an immediate concern.

4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.

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