HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Uncontrollable drooling.
- B. Inability to raise voice.
- C. Tingling of extremities.
- D. Eyelid drooping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.
2. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of facial edema. He reports that he has been voiding small amounts of dark, cloudy, tea-colored urine. The parents state that their son had a sore throat 2 weeks earlier, but it has resolved. After assessing the child's vital signs and weight, what intervention should the nurse implement next?
- A. Perform an otoscopic examination
- B. Measure the child's abdominal girth
- C. Collect a urine specimen for routine urinalysis
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for serum electrolytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis is the next appropriate intervention. The symptoms described, including facial edema and tea-colored urine, are indicative of glomerulonephritis, a condition affecting the kidneys. A urine specimen can help assess renal function and the presence of blood and protein in the urine, which are common in glomerulonephritis. Performing an otoscopic examination (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Measuring the child's abdominal girth (Choice B) is not necessary at this point as it does not directly address the urinary symptoms. Obtaining a blood specimen for serum electrolytes (Choice D) may provide information about electrolyte imbalances but is not the most appropriate initial step in this case.
3. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
- B. Have the client sign the consent form.
- C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
- D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.
4. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice
- B. Call 911 to summon emergency assistance
- C. Check the client for lacerations or fractures
- D. Assess client's blood sugar level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take after an elderly client with diabetes slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess for any immediate physical injuries that may need immediate attention. Giving orange juice or assessing the blood sugar level may be important later but checking for injuries takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Calling 911 should be considered if there are severe injuries or if the client is in distress, but checking for lacerations or fractures is the priority at the moment.
5. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased joint pain
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- C. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl
- D. Fever of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.
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