Nursing Elites

1. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Uncontrollable drooling.
• B. Inability to raise voice.
• C. Tingling of extremities.
• D. Eyelid drooping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.

2. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/325 mg. His vital signs are elevated from previous readings: temperature 97.8°F, heart rate 102 beats/minute, respiration 20 breaths/minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left is greater than the right. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. Surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In this scenario, the client is experiencing abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, with signs of potential complications such as a swollen abdomen, tenderness at the groin access site, and unequal peripheral pulses. The client's vital signs are also elevated, indicating a worsening condition. Given these findings, the immediate evaluation by the surgeon is crucial to assess for serious complications like internal bleeding or ischemia. Choice A is incorrect as the focus should be on the urgent need for surgical evaluation rather than lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate management of the client's current situation. Choice D, while providing background information, is not essential for the urgent intervention required in this case.

3. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L should be closely monitored in a client with chronic heart failure as it may indicate hyperkalemia, requiring intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is important to monitor for kidney function but is not the priority in this case. Serum sodium (Choice B) and blood glucose (Choice D) levels are not typically the primary focus when assessing a client with heart failure presenting with respiratory symptoms and crackles in the lungs.

4. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?

• A. Describe the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
• B. Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet.
• C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
• D. Suggest wearing a medical alert bracelet at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet is crucial for a client recovering from anorexia nervosa to prevent hypoglycemic episodes. Choice A is not the most important intervention at this point since the client is already aware of hypoglycemia based on the recent event. Choice C is important but not the priority in this situation where dietary intervention is crucial. Choice D, suggesting a medical alert bracelet, is not as essential as ensuring proper nutrition to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes.

5. Following routine diagnostic tests, a client who is symptom-free is diagnosed with Paget's disease. Client teaching should be directed toward what important goal for this client?

• A. Maintain adequate cardiac output.
• B. Promote adequate tissue perfusion.
• C. Promote rest and sleep.
• D. Reduce the risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Paget's disease, bone remodeling is affected, leading to increased risk for fractures. Therefore, the primary goal of client teaching should focus on reducing the risk for injury. Choices A and B are not directly related to the primary concern of Paget's disease, which is bone fractures. Choice C, promoting rest and sleep, is important for overall health but is not the priority when considering the specific risks associated with Paget's disease.

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