HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
- B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
- C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
- D. Perform a digital rectal examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.
2. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?
- A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
- B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
- C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
- D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.
3. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Fever of 100.4°F
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is a clinical finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, which can be severe in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt assessment and treatment are essential to prevent worsening of the infection and potential complications. Heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are also important parameters to monitor in clients with ESRD, but in this scenario, the fever takes precedence due to its potential to indicate a critical condition that requires urgent attention.
4. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output
- C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
- D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.
5. The nurse determines that a client's pupils constrict as they change focus from a far object. What documentation should the nurse enter about this finding?
- A. Pupils reactive to accommodation.
- B. Nystagmus present with pupillary focus.
- C. Peripheral vision intact.
- D. Consensual pupillary constriction present.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils reactive to accommodation.' When pupils constrict as the client changes focus from a far object to a near one, it indicates a normal response known as accommodation. This physiological process allows the eyes to adjust their focus, and it is a healthy finding. Choice B is incorrect because nystagmus is an involuntary eye movement, not related to the change in focus. Choice C is irrelevant to the scenario and does not describe the observed finding. Choice D refers to pupillary constriction in response to light, not accommodation to changes in focus.
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