Nursing Elites

1. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

2. After receiving lactulose, a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Send stool specimen to the lab
• B. Measure abdominal girth
• C. Encourage increased fiber in the diet
• D. Monitor mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement after a client with hepatic encephalopathy has loose stools following lactulose administration is to monitor the client's mental status. Lactulose is given to lower serum ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, and loose stools can be an expected side effect of its use. Monitoring mental status is crucial because changes in mental status, such as confusion or altered level of consciousness, are key indicators of hepatic encephalopathy worsening. Sending a stool specimen to the lab would not be the priority in this situation as loose stools are a known effect of lactulose. Measuring abdominal girth is more relevant for conditions like ascites, not loose stools. Encouraging increased fiber in the diet may be beneficial for constipation but is not the immediate action needed when loose stools occur after lactulose administration.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a neurological assessment.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a neurological assessment. In a client with chronic heart failure presenting with confusion, the priority is to assess neurological status to rule out potential causes such as hypoxia or other complications. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice B) is important but assessing the neurological status takes precedence in this scenario. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining an ECG (Choice D) may be necessary but are not the initial priority when a client presents with confusion alongside shortness of breath.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• D. Assess the client's neurological status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.

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