Nursing Elites

1. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). A low serum bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which can be life-threatening. This condition needs urgent correction to restore acid-base balance. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are abnormal values, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the metabolic acidosis indicated by the low serum bicarbonate level.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer intravenous fluids.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous insulin is the initial priority in managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, addressing the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output (choice B) is important but is not the first intervention needed. Administering intravenous fluids (choice C) is essential to correct dehydration in DKA, but insulin therapy takes precedence. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (choice D) is contraindicated in DKA as it can exacerbate hyperglycemia.

4. A client is admitted for type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which breakfast selection by the client indicates effective learning?

• A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, one slice of whole wheat toast with butter and jam.
• B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries, and 6 ounces of coffee.
• C. Banana pancake with maple syrup, sausage links, half grapefruit, and low-fat milk.
• D. Orange juice, yogurt with berries, cold cereal with milk, bran muffin with margarine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries is a suitable choice for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease as it provides a balanced meal that helps manage blood sugar levels and kidney function. Choice A contains high saturated fats and added sugars from bacon, butter, and jam, which are not ideal for this client. Choice C includes high sugar content from maple syrup and pancake, which can negatively impact blood sugar levels. Choice D contains high sugar content from orange juice and cold cereal, which can lead to blood sugar spikes, not suitable for a client with diabetes and CKD.

5. In preparing assignments for the shift, which client is best for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN)?

• A. An older client who fell yesterday and is now complaining of diplopia.
• B. An adult newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and high cholesterol.
• C. A client with pancreatic cancer who is experiencing intractable pain.
• D. An older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best client for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN) is an older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia. This client is stable and suitable for care by a PN under supervision. Choices A, B, and C present clients with more complex and acute conditions that would require a higher level of nursing expertise and intervention.

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