Nursing Elites

1. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

2. Progressive kyphoscoliosis leading to respiratory distress is evident in a client with muscular dystrophy. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Extremity muscle weakness.
• B. Bilateral eyelid drooping.
• C. Inability to swallow pills.
• D. Evidence of hypoventilation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evidence of hypoventilation. In a client with muscular dystrophy and progressive kyphoscoliosis, hypoventilation indicates respiratory muscle weakness and can lead to life-threatening respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while extremity muscle weakness, bilateral eyelid drooping, and inability to swallow pills are concerning symptoms in muscular dystrophy, evidence of hypoventilation poses a more immediate threat to the client's respiratory status.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with COPD as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, patients often retain carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level suggests that the body is compensating for this respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate levels to maintain balance. Therefore, a low serum bicarbonate level in this scenario is alarming. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not directly related to the acid-base imbalance seen in COPD.

4. A client with pneumonia has arterial blood gases levels at: pH 7.33; PaCO2 49 mm/Hg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; PaO2 95. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these results?

• A. Institute coughing and deep breathing protocols.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
• D. Increase IV fluids to improve hydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis due to an elevated PaCO2 (49 mm/Hg), indicating hypoventilation. The appropriate intervention for respiratory acidosis is to improve ventilation. Coughing and deep breathing protocols can help the client to effectively ventilate and improve gas exchange. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary in respiratory distress situations, but addressing the underlying cause of hypoventilation is crucial. Intubation and mechanical ventilation (Choice C) are not the first-line interventions for uncomplicated respiratory acidosis. Increasing IV fluids (Choice D) does not directly address the respiratory acidosis present in this scenario.

5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

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