HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are the most concerning finding in a client with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Peaked T waves are a classic ECG finding associated with hyperkalemia and indicate the need for immediate intervention. Bradycardia, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes can also be seen in hyperkalemia, but the presence of peaked T waves signifies a higher risk of cardiac events, making it the most concerning finding in this scenario.
2. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- A. Avoid exposure to respiratory infections.
- B. Use relaxation exercises when anxious.
- C. Continue physical therapy at home.
- D. Plan short, frequent rest periods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome is to avoid exposure to respiratory infections. Guillain-Barre syndrome can affect the respiratory system, making infections particularly dangerous. While relaxation exercises, physical therapy, and rest periods are beneficial for overall well-being and recovery, preventing respiratory infections takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening complications associated with respiratory compromise in Guillain-Barre syndrome.
3. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis with a Glasgow Coma Scale score change from 10 to 7.
- B. Myxedema coma with a blood pressure change from 80/50 to 70/40.
- C. Viral meningitis with a temperature change from 101°F to 102°F.
- D. Subdural hematoma with a blood pressure change from 150/80 to 170/60.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101°F to 102°F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.
4. The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?
- A. Wait 1 minute and palpate the systolic pressure before auscultating again.
- B. Increase the inflation pressure by 20 mm Hg and measure again.
- C. Switch to a larger cuff and repeat the measurement.
- D. Document the finding as normal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.
5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
- B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
- C. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
- D. ‘I should limit my caffeine intake to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The statement ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms’ indicates a misunderstanding. Antacids should only be taken when symptoms are present to neutralize excess stomach acid. Taking antacids regularly when not experiencing symptoms may lead to metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements for a client with peptic ulcer disease as they all focus on avoiding irritants that can exacerbate the condition.
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