Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Inspect the client's face for edema.
• B. Ascertain the frequency of headaches.
• C. Evaluate for a history of cluster headaches.
• D. Observe and time the client's contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.

2. In caring for a 4-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which characteristic of the disease is most important for the nurse to focus on during the initial teaching?

• A. Lower legs become progressively weaker, causing a waddling, unsteady gait.
• B. Growth and development have been abnormal since birth.
• C. Muscular strength can be regained with physical exercise and therapy.
• D. Respiratory dysfunction and aspiration are prime concerns at this stage of the disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a key characteristic is the progressive weakness in the lower legs, leading to a waddling, unsteady gait. The nurse should focus on teaching about this aspect as it helps in understanding the disease's progression and managing the symptoms effectively.

3. Immediately after birth, a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations, and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
• B. Intervene after the one-minute Apgar assessment.
• C. Initiate CPR on the infant.
• D. Assess the infant's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 bpm in a newborn indicates bradycardia and requires intervention. Positive pressure ventilation should be initiated to improve oxygenation and help increase the infant's heart rate. This intervention is crucial to support the newborn's transition to extrauterine life and prevent further complications.

4. The LPN/LVN should explain to a 30-year-old gravida client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?

• A. Detect cardiovascular disorders.
• B. Screen for neural tube defects.
• C. Monitor placental functioning.
• D. Assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Screen for neural tube defects. Alpha fetoprotein testing is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects and other fetal abnormalities. It is not used to detect cardiovascular disorders, monitor placental functioning, or assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

5. A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Which information obtained from the clients is most likely to have an impact on the couple's ability to conceive a child?

• A. Both partners have a daily exercise regimen that includes running four miles each morning.
• B. The couple has a history of having sexual intercourse 2 to 3 times per week.
• C. The woman's menstrual period occurs every 35 days.
• D. They use lubricants with each sexual encounter to decrease friction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using lubricants during sexual encounters can potentially impact the couple's ability to conceive a child. Some lubricants may contain substances that are spermicidal or alter the vaginal environment, affecting sperm motility and fertility.

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