Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
• B. Furosemide (Lasix).
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
• D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

2. While screening all children in the third grade for head lice, the school nurse observes that one girl has a brownish thickening on her neck. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. review the child's medical folder for a list of allergies
• B. instruct the child's parents to begin treatment
• C. advise the child's parents to obtain a medical evaluation of the child
• D. none of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to advise the child's parents to obtain a medical evaluation of the child. This is important because a medical professional needs to properly diagnose and treat the brownish thickening observed on the child's neck. Reviewing the child's medical folder for allergies (Choice A) is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the specific concern. Instructing the child's parents to begin treatment (Choice B) without a proper diagnosis can be harmful and ineffective. Choosing 'none of the above' (Choice D) is not the best option when a potential health issue is identified; seeking a medical evaluation is the most appropriate course of action.

3. A community health nurse is conducting a program evaluation for a diabetes management class. Which measure best indicates the program's effectiveness?

• A. Number of participants attending each session
• B. Participant satisfaction with the class
• C. Reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels
• D. Improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective measure to indicate the program's effectiveness in a diabetes management class is the reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels. This measure directly reflects the impact of the program on managing diabetes and improving health outcomes. Choices A and B may provide valuable information but do not directly assess the program's impact on managing diabetes. Choice D, improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes, is important but may not directly translate into improved diabetes management without actual health outcome measurements like blood glucose levels.

4. A female client reports to the nurse that her sleep was interrupted by 'thoughts of anger towards my husband.' What type of thoughts is the client having?

• A. Obsessive.
• B. Phobic.
• C. Delusional.
• D. Paranoid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obsessive. Obsessive thoughts are recurring, unwanted, and intrusive thoughts that cause distress or anxiety. In this scenario, the client is experiencing repetitive thoughts of anger towards her husband, indicating an inability to control these thoughts. Choice B, Phobic, is incorrect as phobic thoughts are related to irrational fears. Choice C, Delusional, is incorrect as delusional thoughts involve fixed false beliefs. Choice D, Paranoid, is incorrect as paranoid thoughts involve irrational suspicions and mistrust.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.

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