a client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200120 mm hg which medication should the nurse prepare to administer
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden, severe abdominal pain can indicate a perforated ulcer, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Epigastric tenderness (choice A) may be expected in a client with peptic ulcer disease but does not necessarily require immediate intervention. Hypoactive bowel sounds (choice B) are concerning but not as urgent as sudden, severe abdominal pain. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are more indicative of conditions like gastroenteritis rather than a perforated ulcer, making it a less critical finding compared to sudden, severe abdominal pain.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

4. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing pruritus. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Administering antihistamines as prescribed is the appropriate intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing pruritus. Antihistamines can help reduce pruritus by blocking histamine receptors, which are often prescribed for such clients. Choice B, applying moisturizing lotion, may help with dry skin but will not directly address pruritus. Choice C, using cool water for bathing, may provide some relief but does not target the underlying cause of pruritus. Choice D, encouraging a high-protein diet, is not directly related to managing pruritus in chronic kidney disease.

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