a community health nurse is conducting a needs assessment in a rural area which data source is most likely to provide comprehensive information about
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HESI RN

Community Health HESI Quizlet

1. A community health nurse is conducting a needs assessment in a rural area. Which data source is most likely to provide comprehensive information about the community's health status?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: State health department reports are the most likely data source to provide comprehensive information about the community's health status. These reports offer a broad overview of health statistics and trends that can guide community health interventions. Focus groups with community members, although valuable for gathering qualitative insights, may not provide comprehensive health status data. Local hospital admission records are limited to specific healthcare utilization data and do not capture the overall health status of the entire community. Surveys conducted by healthcare providers may offer some insights but may not provide the breadth and depth of information available in state health department reports.

2. The nurse notices that the influenza immunization rate is much lower for certain demographic groups than for others. Which intervention is likely to be most useful in increasing the rates of immunization in the underserved community groups?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conveniently located clinics in target neighborhoods increase accessibility, making it easier for underserved community groups to receive influenza immunizations. This intervention directly addresses the issue of lower immunization rates by improving convenience and access. Reports on decreasing influenza rates (choice B) may not directly impact immunization rates. Legislative proposals mandating vaccinations (choice C) could face resistance and may not always be the most effective or practical solution. Radio announcements (choice D) may raise awareness but may not address the underlying barriers to immunization faced by underserved communities.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum glucose level of 600 mg/dL is extremely high in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) and poses a significant risk of serious complications such as dehydration, coma, and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid intervention is crucial to normalize the glucose level and prevent further deterioration. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, while important to monitor in HHS, do not represent an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention compared to the critically high glucose level.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Graves' disease. The symptoms described in the client are classic manifestations of hyperthyroidism, which is commonly caused by Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. Weight loss, racing heart rate, difficulty sleeping, moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression are all indicative of hyperthyroidism. Choice B, Cushing's syndrome, is characterized by weight gain, hypertension, and a rounded face due to excess cortisol. Choice C, Addison's disease, presents with symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation due to adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, hypothyroidism, typically features symptoms opposite to those described in the client, such as weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

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