Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is conducting a needs assessment in a rural area. Which data source is most likely to provide comprehensive information about the community's health status?

• A. Focus groups with community members
• B. Local hospital admission records
• C. State health department reports
• D. Surveys conducted by healthcare providers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: State health department reports are the most likely data source to provide comprehensive information about the community's health status. These reports offer a broad overview of health statistics and trends that can guide community health interventions. Focus groups with community members, although valuable for gathering qualitative insights, may not provide comprehensive health status data. Local hospital admission records are limited to specific healthcare utilization data and do not capture the overall health status of the entire community. Surveys conducted by healthcare providers may offer some insights but may not provide the breadth and depth of information available in state health department reports.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a safety program for older adults at a senior center. Which topic should the professional prioritize?

• A. medication management
• B. fall prevention
• C. fire safety
• D. emergency preparedness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fall prevention should be prioritized for older adults as falls are a significant cause of injury and hospitalization in this population. Addressing fall prevention measures can help reduce the risk of falls and improve the overall safety and well-being of older adults. Medication management, fire safety, and emergency preparedness are also important topics, but fall prevention takes precedence due to its direct impact on the health and safety of older adults.

3. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

4. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Amylase of 120 U/L.
• B. Lipase of 150 U/L.
• C. Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL.
• D. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.' In a client with acute pancreatitis, elevated blood glucose levels can indicate poor control of diabetes or stress response from the acute illness. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications like worsening pancreatitis, infections, or other metabolic issues. Choices A and B, 'Amylase of 120 U/L' and 'Lipase of 150 U/L,' are commonly elevated in pancreatitis but do not require immediate intervention unless significantly elevated. Choice C, 'Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL,' is within the normal range and not a priority in this scenario.

5. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

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