Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will use my albuterol inhaler before exercising.
• B. I will avoid secondhand smoke.
• C. I will get a flu shot every year.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to 2 liters per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using an albuterol inhaler before exercising is appropriate for clients with COPD to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm.

3. A nurse starts classes for clients with type 2 diabetes. Which information would the nurse use as an outcome evaluation for the class?

• A. Parking convenience for attendees continues to be a major concern.
• B. Fasting blood glucose average readings were 20% lower by the end of classes.
• C. Discussion of food exchanges and calories was a well-attended class.
• D. Demonstrating the use of a blood glucose meter was an effective teaching strategy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A reduction in fasting blood glucose levels indicates the effectiveness of the diabetes management education provided. Monitoring blood glucose levels is a crucial aspect of diabetes management, and a decrease in average readings signifies improvement in managing blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are not direct outcome evaluations related to the effectiveness of the education provided in managing diabetes. Parking convenience, attendance, and teaching strategies are not direct indicators of the impact on the clients' health outcomes.

4. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Weight gain of 1 pound.
• B. Dizziness.
• C. Fatigue.
• D. Muscle cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After hemodialysis, muscle cramps can indicate an electrolyte imbalance, such as low potassium or magnesium levels, which requires immediate intervention to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Weight gain of 1 pound, dizziness, and fatigue are common post-hemodialysis symptoms that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are severe or persisting.

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