Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

2. The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?

• A. Graves' disease.
• B. Cushing's syndrome.
• C. Addison's disease.
• D. Hypothyroidism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Graves' disease. The symptoms described in the client are classic manifestations of hyperthyroidism, which is commonly caused by Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. Weight loss, racing heart rate, difficulty sleeping, moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression are all indicative of hyperthyroidism. Choice B, Cushing's syndrome, is characterized by weight gain, hypertension, and a rounded face due to excess cortisol. Choice C, Addison's disease, presents with symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation due to adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, hypothyroidism, typically features symptoms opposite to those described in the client, such as weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin.

3. A government office worker is seen in the emergency room after opening an envelope containing a powder-like substance which is being tested for anthrax. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the client concerning inhalation anthrax?

• A. return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days
• B. notify co-workers to get the anthrax vaccine at the public health department
• C. isolation from friends and family members is recommended for 3 weeks
• D. cleanse all surfaces touched with pre-moistened antibacterial wipes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days. Flu-like symptoms can be an early sign of inhalation anthrax, and prompt medical intervention is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because the focus should be on the affected individual seeking medical attention rather than vaccinating others. Choice C is incorrect as isolation from friends and family members is not a standard recommendation for inhalation anthrax. Choice D is also incorrect as cleansing surfaces is important for infection control but may not be the priority when facing potential exposure to anthrax.

4. The instructor is teaching a prenatal class about the importance of folic acid. Which outcome indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. participants can list foods high in folic acid
• B. participants plan to take folic acid supplements daily
• C. participants understand the risks of folic acid deficiency
• D. participants demonstrate how to read nutrition labels for folic acid content

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because planning to take folic acid supplements daily is a proactive step towards preventing folic acid deficiency and reducing the risk of neural tube defects in pregnancy. While choice A is important for dietary knowledge, the direct action of taking supplements is more effective. Choice C, understanding the risks, is good but does not ensure action. Choice D, reading nutrition labels, is helpful but doesn't guarantee intake of folic acid.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Hematemesis.
• C. Melena.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presenting with severe epigastric pain, the finding that requires immediate intervention is rebound tenderness. Rebound tenderness can indicate peritonitis, a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, and melena are also concerning symptoms in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease, but they do not signify the urgency of intervention as rebound tenderness does.

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