Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL per day.
• B. Administer a vasopressin antagonist.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Encourage a high-sodium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a vasopressin antagonist is the most critical intervention for a client with SIADH. SIADH is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A vasopressin antagonist helps manage the symptoms by blocking the effects of ADH, promoting water excretion, and restoring electrolyte balance. Restricting fluids (choice A) may exacerbate hyponatremia, monitoring intake and output (choice C) is important but not the most critical intervention, and encouraging a high-sodium diet (choice D) is contraindicated in SIADH due to the risk of worsening hyponatremia.

3. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?

• A. Lung sounds and respiratory status.
• B. Skin integrity and color.
• C. Neurological status and level of consciousness.
• D. Cardiac rate and rhythm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.

5. A client who has been receiving chemotherapy for cancer has a platelet count of 20,000/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Apply ice packs to bruised areas.
• B. Encourage frequent oral hygiene.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures.
• D. Place the client in a private room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a platelet count of 20,000/mm3 due to chemotherapy is to avoid invasive procedures. Chemotherapy can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse helps reduce the risk of bleeding complications. Applying ice packs to bruised areas (Choice A) may further increase the risk of bleeding due to the pressure and potential trauma to the skin. Encouraging frequent oral hygiene (Choice B) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with a low platelet count. Placing the client in a private room (Choice D) is not directly related to managing the platelet count and risk of bleeding; it is more about privacy and infection control, which are important but not the priority in this scenario.

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