Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

2. During a home visit, the nurse finds that an elderly client has multiple expired medications. What should the nurse do first?

• A. instruct the client to dispose of the expired medications
• B. review the client's current medication regimen
• C. contact the client's healthcare provider
• D. educate the client on the dangers of taking expired medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when finding multiple expired medications in an elderly client's home is to review the client's current medication regimen. This step is crucial to identify any potential issues, ensure the client is taking the correct medications, and understand why the expired medications were not used. Instructing the client to dispose of the expired medications (Choice A) can come after understanding the current medication situation. Contacting the client's healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary but reviewing the medication regimen should be the initial step. Educating the client on the dangers of taking expired medications (Choice D) is important but should be done after addressing the immediate concern of reviewing the current medications.

3. The school nurse who is reviewing immunization records of students who will start kindergarten within the next month notes that most of the students have only received one dose of the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Note in the student records that the second dose of the MMR vaccine should be administered prior to entering first grade
• B. Send notices home with the children on the first day of class advising that MMR vaccine series must be completed
• C. Contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of MMR is due at the start of the school year
• D. Speak at the next parent-teacher association meeting to teach parents the benefits of immunizing their children

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the school nurse is to contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of the MMR vaccine is due at the start of the school year. This approach directly addresses the issue of incomplete vaccination coverage and ensures that children receive the complete vaccination on time. Choice A is incorrect as it only notes the need for the second dose without actively engaging parents. Choice B is not as effective as directly contacting parents and may lead to delays in completing the vaccination series. Choice D, while promoting immunization, does not directly address the current situation of incomplete MMR vaccination among the kindergarten students.

4. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

5. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

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