Nursing Elites

1. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?

• A. contributes money to a professional society or organization
• B. maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
• C. documents the nursing process in care management
• D. develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety demonstrates leadership and proficiency in contributing to the field. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to professionalism criteria in the context of occupational health nursing. Contributing money to a professional society, maintaining chairmanship of a nursing council, or documenting the nursing process, while important, do not specifically highlight the nurse's impact on occupational health and safety through policy development.

2. When the receptionist for the answering service offers to take a message, which nursing action is best for the nurse to take if a client is exhibiting an extrapyramidal reaction to psychotropic medications?

• A. Leave a detailed message about the client's condition.
• B. Tell the receptionist to have the healthcare provider return the phone call.
• C. Call another healthcare provider.
• D. Document the attempt to call the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing action is to request a return call from the healthcare provider. When a client is experiencing an extrapyramidal reaction to psychotropic medications, it is crucial to prioritize the client's confidentiality and ensure the information is conveyed to the healthcare provider directly. Leaving a detailed message with a receptionist may compromise the confidentiality of the client's condition. Calling another healthcare provider may delay necessary intervention and continuity of care. Documenting the attempt to call is important for the nurse's records but does not address the immediate need to inform the healthcare provider about the client's condition.

3. When planning a scoliosis screening clinic, which age group should be included?

• A. early adolescent girls
• B. late adolescent boys
• C. 7-10 year old boys
• D. preschoolers of both genders

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is early adolescent girls. Scoliosis is most commonly diagnosed during early adolescence, with girls being more affected than boys. Including early adolescent girls in the screening clinic aligns with the age group that is at higher risk for scoliosis. Late adolescent boys (choice B) are less likely to develop scoliosis compared to early adolescent girls. 7-10 year old boys (choice C) are typically younger than the age group where scoliosis is commonly diagnosed. Preschoolers of both genders (choice D) are too young for scoliosis screening as the condition usually manifests during adolescence.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 92%.
• C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• D. Pain at the surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 99°F (37.2°C) in a postoperative client requires immediate intervention as it may indicate the presence of infection. Elevated temperature post-surgery can be a sign of surgical site infection or systemic infection, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Monitoring and managing a fever in a postoperative client is crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings, such as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, oxygen saturation of 92%, and pain at the surgical site, are common postoperative assessments that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly out of normal range or causing severe distress to the client.

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