Nursing Elites

1. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?

• A. contributes money to a professional society or organization
• B. maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
• C. documents the nursing process in care management
• D. develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety demonstrates leadership and proficiency in contributing to the field. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to professionalism criteria in the context of occupational health nursing. Contributing money to a professional society, maintaining chairmanship of a nursing council, or documenting the nursing process, while important, do not specifically highlight the nurse's impact on occupational health and safety through policy development.

2. A public health nurse is implementing a program to improve vaccination rates among children in the community. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times
• B. Distributing educational materials about vaccines
• C. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated
• D. Hosting informational sessions for parents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times is the most effective intervention as it reduces barriers to access and makes it easier for parents to get their children vaccinated. This strategy directly addresses the issue of convenience and accessibility, which are common reasons for low vaccination rates. Distributing educational materials about vaccines (Choice B) can be helpful but may not directly address access issues. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated (Choice C) may be controversial and not sustainable in the long term. Hosting informational sessions for parents (Choice D) can be beneficial for education but may not directly improve vaccination rates as much as increasing access.

3. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

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