the occupational heal th nurse is completing a yearly sel f evaluation which activity shoul d the nurse document as an example of profi cient performa
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety demonstrates leadership and proficiency in contributing to the field. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to professionalism criteria in the context of occupational health nursing. Contributing money to a professional society, maintaining chairmanship of a nursing council, or documenting the nursing process, while important, do not specifically highlight the nurse's impact on occupational health and safety through policy development.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.

4. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.' In a client with acute pancreatitis, elevated blood glucose levels can indicate poor control of diabetes or stress response from the acute illness. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications like worsening pancreatitis, infections, or other metabolic issues. Choices A and B, 'Amylase of 120 U/L' and 'Lipase of 150 U/L,' are commonly elevated in pancreatitis but do not require immediate intervention unless significantly elevated. Choice C, 'Calcium of 8.5 mg/dL,' is within the normal range and not a priority in this scenario.

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