Nursing Elites

1. A client's laboratory findings indicate elevations in thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones. The nurse suspects that the client may have hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding is most often associated with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Atrophied thyroid gland.
• C. Increased pulse rate.
• D. Diarrhea stools.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased pulse rate is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to the increased metabolic rate. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure, not hyperthyroidism. Atrophied thyroid gland (Choice B) is not typically an assessment finding for hyperthyroidism as the gland is usually enlarged in this condition. Diarrhea stools (Choice D) can occur in hyperthyroidism, but it is not the most common assessment finding associated with the condition.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Increased blood pressure.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

3. The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units?

• A. 10 units.
• B. 22 units.
• C. 32 units.
• D. 24 units.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dose would be 32 units, which is the sum of 10 units of regular insulin and 22 units of NPH. It is essential to combine the doses of both types of insulin to ensure the client administers the correct total dose. Choices A and B represent the individual doses of regular and NPH insulin, respectively, not the combined total. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the sum of both insulin doses.

4. During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Initiate isolation precautions
• B. Administer an antipyretic
• C. Draw blood cultures
• D. Prepare for lumbar puncture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.

5. A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should first assess:

• A. The client’s vital signs
• B. The amount of drainage
• C. The client’s lung sounds
• D. The chest tube connections

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection in the chest tube system. Checking the chest tube connections should be the initial action because correcting an air leak can quickly resolve the client's symptoms. If a leak is found and corrected, the dyspnea should improve. Assessing the client’s vital signs (Option A) is important, but addressing the potential cause of dyspnea takes precedence. Monitoring the amount of drainage (Option B) is necessary for assessing the client's overall condition, but in this case, the dyspnea is likely due to an air leak. Checking the client’s lung sounds (Option C) is essential for respiratory assessment, but addressing the air leak should be the immediate priority to ensure adequate lung expansion and oxygenation.

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