Nursing Elites

1. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and that the reading needs to be verified by another nurse.
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort.
• D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to compare the current blood pressure reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison will provide valuable information about what is normal for this specific client, helping to determine if the current reading represents a significant change or if it falls within the client's usual range. By reviewing the client's past readings, the nurse can assess trends, variations, and if the current reading is an isolated high value or part of a pattern, guiding appropriate decision-making. Informing the client about the high reading (Choice A) or contacting the healthcare provider for medication (Choice B) should come after assessing the client's history. Replacing the cuff (Choice C) is not necessary at this point and does not address the immediate need to compare the readings for appropriate intervention.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Dependent edema.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Nocturia.
• D. Orthopnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.

3. The healthcare provider selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the healthcare provider use to identify placement of the IV access?

• A. Left brachial vein
• B. Right cephalic vein
• C. Dorsal side of the right wrist
• D. Right upper extremity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large, superficial vein located on the radial side of the forearm, making it the preferred site for IV access. It is often the best choice for insertion of an IV catheter due to its accessibility and low risk of complications, such as infiltration. Documenting the use of the right cephalic vein for IV access is crucial for accurate and safe patient care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the left brachial vein, the dorsal side of the right wrist, and the right upper extremity are not typically preferred sites for IV catheter insertion and may not provide optimal access or outcomes.

4. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:

• A. Asystole
• B. Bigeminy
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.

5. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

Similar Questions