Nursing Elites

1. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and that the reading needs to be verified by another nurse.
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort.
• D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to compare the current blood pressure reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison will provide valuable information about what is normal for this specific client, helping to determine if the current reading represents a significant change or if it falls within the client's usual range. By reviewing the client's past readings, the nurse can assess trends, variations, and if the current reading is an isolated high value or part of a pattern, guiding appropriate decision-making. Informing the client about the high reading (Choice A) or contacting the healthcare provider for medication (Choice B) should come after assessing the client's history. Replacing the cuff (Choice C) is not necessary at this point and does not address the immediate need to compare the readings for appropriate intervention.

2. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

3. Mr. Landon is scheduled to undergo a tracheostomy. Which nursing action is essential during tracheal suctioning?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant.
• B. Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning.
• C. Ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion.
• D. Assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position during suctioning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning is crucial to prevent hypoxia, which can occur during tracheal suctioning. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making the provision of oxygen essential in maintaining adequate oxygenation levels for the patient undergoing tracheal suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because using a water-soluble lubricant is not directly related to the essential nursing action during tracheal suctioning. Choice C is incorrect as ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion is a basic requirement and not the essential action for oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect because assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position is beneficial for comfort and airway alignment but is not as crucial as administering oxygen to prevent hypoxia.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Oliguria.
• B. Kussmaul respirations.
• C. Fruity odor on the breath.
• D. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.

5. When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.

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