HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and that the reading needs to be verified by another nurse.
- B. Contact the healthcare provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort.
- D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to compare the current blood pressure reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison will provide valuable information about what is normal for this specific client, helping to determine if the current reading represents a significant change or if it falls within the client's usual range. By reviewing the client's past readings, the nurse can assess trends, variations, and if the current reading is an isolated high value or part of a pattern, guiding appropriate decision-making. Informing the client about the high reading (Choice A) or contacting the healthcare provider for medication (Choice B) should come after assessing the client's history. Replacing the cuff (Choice C) is not necessary at this point and does not address the immediate need to compare the readings for appropriate intervention.
2. A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.
3. The nurse is assessing a 4-month-old infant who has just received routine immunizations. The mother reports that the baby has been fussy and has a low-grade fever since the immunizations. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. These are common side effects and should resolve within a few days
- B. Your baby may be having an allergic reaction to the immunizations
- C. You should bring your baby to the clinic immediately for evaluation
- D. You should give your baby aspirin to help with the fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is to reassure the mother that fussiness and low-grade fever are common side effects of immunizations in infants and should resolve within a few days. It is essential to educate the mother about these expected reactions to alleviate her concerns. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to immunizations usually present with more severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing or swelling. Choice C is not warranted unless there are concerning symptoms present. Choice D is inappropriate as aspirin is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.
4. Which of the following processes produces nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FADH2) for the electron transport chain during cellular respiration?
- A. Electron transport chain
- B. Glycolysis
- C. Citric acid cycle (the Krebs cycle)
- D. None of these
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the citric acid cycle (the Krebs cycle). This cycle generates NADH and FADH2, which play a crucial role in providing electrons to the electron transport chain during cellular respiration. Choice A, the electron transport chain itself, is where NADH and FADH2 donate their electrons, not where they are produced. Choice B, glycolysis, produces NADH but not FADH2. Choice D, 'None of these,' is incorrect as the citric acid cycle specifically produces NADH and FADH2.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
- B. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
- C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. High serum ammonia levels can lead to altered mental status, confusion, and even coma. Serum albumin (choice A) is often decreased in cirrhosis but does not require immediate intervention. Serum bilirubin (choice B) elevation is expected in cirrhosis and may not require immediate intervention unless very high. Serum sodium (choice D) within the given range is generally acceptable and does not require immediate intervention.