HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
- C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
- D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client reports a change in bowel habits, the first step for the nurse is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern by reviewing the medical records. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's baseline, which is crucial before initiating any interventions. By determining the client's usual bowel habits, the nurse can identify deviations from the norm and make informed decisions on the appropriate course of action. Assessing the client's medical record is a critical first step in addressing the client's bowel concerns. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they jump to interventions without first establishing the client's normal bowel pattern. Offering warm prune juice, requesting a large-volume enema, or increasing fluids may not be appropriate until the nurse knows the client's regular bowel habits and can assess the situation effectively.
2. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
- B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
- D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.
3. The nurse on the evening shift receives report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the nurse implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?
- A. Hold all bedtime medication.
- B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
- C. Implement elopement precautions.
- D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is essential to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. Choice A, holding all bedtime medication, is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice C, implementing elopement precautions, is unrelated to preparing for ECT. Choice D, giving the client an enema at bedtime, is not a standard pre-ECT intervention.
4. A 15-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. The nurse notes that the client’s hemoglobin A1c is 10%. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose.
- B. Discuss dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake.
- C. Review the client’s insulin administration technique.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control, reflecting an average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months. To improve control, the plan of care should be comprehensive. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose helps track changes in blood sugar levels. Discussing dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake can aid in better blood sugar management. Reviewing the client’s insulin administration technique ensures proper medication dosing. Therefore, all the options (increasing monitoring, discussing dietary changes, and reviewing insulin administration) are essential components of the plan of care to address the client's poor blood glucose control. The correct answer is D because all these interventions are crucial for managing the client's condition effectively. Choices A, B, and C individually address different aspects of diabetes management and are all necessary in this scenario.
5. When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys
- B. Assess the child's previous reactions to punishment
- C. Offer the child positive feedback
- D. Involve other children on the unit in describing the token system
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy is to identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's motivations is crucial in creating an effective behavior modification plan tailored to his interests and preferences, which can help in positively reinforcing desired behaviors.