a client in a long term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days which intervention should the nurse implemen
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Test

1. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client reports a change in bowel habits, the first step for the nurse is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern by reviewing the medical records. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's baseline, which is crucial before initiating any interventions. By determining the client's usual bowel habits, the nurse can identify deviations from the norm and make informed decisions on the appropriate course of action. Assessing the client's medical record is a critical first step in addressing the client's bowel concerns. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they jump to interventions without first establishing the client's normal bowel pattern. Offering warm prune juice, requesting a large-volume enema, or increasing fluids may not be appropriate until the nurse knows the client's regular bowel habits and can assess the situation effectively.

2. When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.

3. Upon admission, a female client with breast cancer, liver, and spine metastases presents with constant, severe pain despite the continuous use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) at home for pain management. What information is most crucial for the nurse to gather during the admission assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the admission assessment of a client with severe pain due to breast cancer metastasis to the liver and spine is the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain. Understanding these details is essential to tailor appropriate pain management therapy effectively. By assessing the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of pain, the nurse can better determine the underlying cause and choose the most suitable interventions to address the client's pain and improve their quality of life. Trigger points, medication dosages, and sympathetic responses are also important aspects of pain assessment but understanding the sensory aspects of pain is fundamental for providing optimal care in this scenario.

4. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.

5. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia, the nurse should monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. These values indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which directly relates to the treatment of anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.

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