HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of this OTC medication?
- A. Nausea and indigestion.
- B. Hypersalivation.
- C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
- D. Increased appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. These symptoms are often reported by individuals taking this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.
2. A client with rapid respirations and audible rhonchi is admitted to the intensive care unit because of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Low-flow oxygen by nasal cannula and weight-based heparin protocol are initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Evaluate blood clotting factors daily.
- B. Encourage incentive spirometry use.
- C. Administer pain medication as needed.
- D. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Evaluating blood clotting factors daily is crucial when a client is on heparin therapy to monitor for potential complications such as bleeding or clotting issues. This monitoring helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range and reduces the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Encouraging incentive spirometry use is beneficial for preventing atelectasis and improving lung function, but in this scenario, monitoring blood clotting factors takes precedence. Administering pain medication as needed is important for the client's comfort but is not the priority in managing a pulmonary embolism. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to heparin therapy, but evaluating blood clotting factors provides more specific information on the client's response to treatment.
3. While auscultating a client's heart sounds, which description should the nurse use to document a swishing sound related to blood turbulence or valvular defect?
- A. S1 S2
- B. S1 S2 S3
- C. Murmur
- D. Pericardial friction rub
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Murmur.' A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound associated with blood turbulence caused by the heart or a valvular defect. Choices 'A: S1 S2' and 'B: S1 S2 S3' refer to normal heart sounds, specifically the closure of heart valves. 'D: Pericardial friction rub' is a dry, rubbing or grating sound caused by inflammation of the pericardial sac and is not associated with blood flow or valvular issues.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. This increases the risk of hyperkalemia, making it crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy primarily affects red blood cell production, not hemoglobin, white blood cell count, or serum calcium levels.
5. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products while in the operating room. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, he is being mechanically ventilated, and his oxygen saturation is 87%. His laboratory values include hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL, platelets 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells 1,500/mm³. Based on these assessment findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
- B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
- C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
- D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation at 90%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of severe anemia and hypovolemic shock, indicated by low hemoglobin levels and hypotension. The first priority is to address the low hemoglobin by transfusing packed red blood cells to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and perfusion to vital organs. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures is important for identifying potential infections, infusing normal saline can help with volume expansion but does not address the primary issue of severe anemia. Titrating oxygen to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% is crucial but should follow the administration of packed red blood cells to optimize oxygen delivery.
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