Nursing Elites

1. For a male client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume?

• A. Cool, clammy skin
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Increased urine osmolarity
• D. Decreased serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine osmolarity is the best assessment finding supporting a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume in a male client with hyperglycemia. In hyperglycemia, there is increased glucose in the blood, which leads to osmotic diuresis. This results in the excretion of large amounts of urine that is concentrated (high osmolarity), leading to dehydration and fluid volume deficit. Cool, clammy skin (Choice A) is more indicative of poor perfusion, distended neck veins (Choice B) are associated with fluid volume excess, and decreased serum sodium level (Choice D) could be a result of dilutional hyponatremia due to fluid overload rather than deficient fluid volume.

2. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

• A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
• B. Encouraging increased oral intake
• C. Restricting fluids
• D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

3. A nurse manager has detected a potential problem with staffing and has asked staff members for their thoughts on the matter. Which of the following best describes the informational activity this manager is engaging in?

• A. Spokesperson
• B. Reporting
• C. Monitoring
• D. Job analysis and redesign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitoring.' Monitoring involves regularly checking and observing the status of a unit or situation. In this scenario, the nurse manager is actively seeking feedback from staff members to assess and keep track of the staffing situation. Choice A, 'Spokesperson,' refers to a role where someone represents or speaks on behalf of a group or organization, which is not the primary activity in this case. Choice B, 'Reporting,' typically involves presenting information or data about a specific topic or issue but does not capture the ongoing observation and assessment aspect seen in monitoring. Choice D, 'Job analysis and redesign,' involves assessing and restructuring job roles, responsibilities, and tasks, which is not directly related to the action of monitoring staffing levels.

4. What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?

• A. Excessive sodium intake
• B. A pituitary adenoma
• C. Deficient potassium intake
• D. An adrenal adenoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism is typically caused by an adrenal adenoma, a benign tumor in the adrenal gland that leads to excessive aldosterone production. Excessive sodium intake (Choice A) does not directly cause hyperaldosteronism. Pituitary adenoma (Choice B) is associated with conditions like Cushing's disease, not hyperaldosteronism. Deficient potassium intake (Choice C) can lead to hypokalemia but is not a common cause of hyperaldosteronism.

5. A client with type 2 DM is being treated with metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime.
• D. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as missing a meal should not lead to avoiding the medication, but the client should take it with the next meal as prescribed.

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