HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Troponin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.
2. While assisting a male client with muscular dystrophy (MD) to the bathroom, the nurse observes that he is awkward and clumsy. When he expresses his frustration and complains of hip discomfort, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a portable toilet next to the bed.
- B. Assist the client with walking exercises.
- C. Provide pain medication as prescribed.
- D. Apply a heating pad to the affected hip.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a portable toilet next to the bed is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. It reduces the need for the client to walk long distances, thereby preventing falls and reducing discomfort. Choice B, assisting with walking exercises, would not be suitable for a client with muscular dystrophy who is experiencing awkwardness and clumsiness. Choice C, providing pain medication, may address the symptom but does not directly address the issue of reducing the need for walking. Choice D, applying a heating pad, may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of mobility and fall prevention.
3. In assessing a client 48 hours following a fracture, the nurse observes ecchymosis at the fracture site and recognizes that hematoma formation at the bone fragment site has occurred. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the extent of the bruising in the medical record.
- B. Apply a cold compress to the area.
- C. Elevate the affected limb.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After observing ecchymosis at the fracture site, indicating hematoma formation, the nurse's priority is to document the extent of the bruising in the medical record. This documentation helps track the client's condition, aids in treatment planning, and serves as a baseline for monitoring changes. Applying a cold compress (choice B) may be contraindicated due to the risk of vasoconstriction and potential tissue damage. Elevating the affected limb (choice C) can be beneficial for reducing swelling in some cases, but documenting the bruising is the immediate concern. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this stage unless there are other concerning symptoms or complications beyond the hematoma formation.
4. A client who is at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. After a 6-gram loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered, an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams/hour is initiated. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
- B. Blood pressure of 138/88
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Temperature of 99.8°F
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour indicates that the kidneys are being affected by the high level of magnesium sulfate. This decreased urine output can lead to magnesium toxicity and impaired kidney function. Blood pressure of 138/88 is within normal limits for pregnancy and does not indicate an immediate concern related to magnesium sulfate. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal, and a temperature of 99.8°F is slightly elevated but not a priority in the context of severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate administration.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
- D. Elevate the head of the bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is crucial in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. This assessment helps determine if the current oxygen therapy is effective or if adjustments are necessary. While administering a bronchodilator is important in managing COPD, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence to address the client's immediate oxygen needs. Assessing the respiratory rate is also important but evaluating oxygen saturation provides more direct information about the client's oxygen status. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the priority when assessing oxygen saturation in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen.
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