Nursing Elites

1. A client with Addison's disease is experiencing an Addisonian crisis. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medication?

• A. Insulin
• B. Hydrocortisone
• C. Levothyroxine
• D. Methimazole

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, leading to a life-threatening situation. Hydrocortisone, a glucocorticoid, is the medication of choice in managing an Addisonian crisis. It helps replace deficient cortisol levels, stabilize blood pressure, and prevent further complications. Insulin (Choice A) is not indicated in Addison's disease unless specifically needed for diabetes management. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is used in hypothyroidism, not in Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used to manage hyperthyroidism, which is not related to Addison's disease or its crisis.

2. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should expect which of the following symptoms?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client experiencing hypoglycemia, tachycardia is a common symptom. This occurs due to the release of adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, which stimulates the heart to beat faster. Polyuria, the increased production of urine, flushed skin, and dry mouth are not typical symptoms of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Flushed skin and dry mouth are not direct physiological responses to low blood sugar levels.

3. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

4. When teaching a male client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements, Nurse Joy should include which guideline?

• A. You'll need more insulin when you exercise or increase your food intake.
• B. You'll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce your food intake.
• C. You'll need less insulin when you increase your food intake.
• D. You'll need more insulin when you exercise or decrease your food intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a person with type 1 diabetes exercises, it typically lowers blood glucose levels. As a result, insulin needs are reduced when exercise or food intake is decreased. Choice A is incorrect because more insulin is not typically needed when exercise or food intake is increased. Choice C is incorrect because increasing food intake would generally require more insulin to cover the additional glucose from the food. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing food intake usually leads to a lower need for insulin.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased urine specific gravity
• C. Decreased serum osmolality
• D. Increased serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

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