Nursing Elites

1. Albert refuses his bedtime snack. This should alert the healthcare provider to assess for:

• A. Elevated serum bicarbonate and decreased blood pH.
• B. Signs of hypoglycemia earlier than expected.
• C. Symptoms of hyperglycemia due to NPH insulin peak time.
• D. Presence of sugar in the urine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient like Albert refuses his bedtime snack, it can lead to hypoglycemia, especially if they are on medication such as insulin. Hypoglycemia can occur earlier than expected due to the lack of carbohydrate intake before bedtime. This situation warrants the healthcare provider to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because the given scenario is more indicative of hypoglycemia than metabolic alkalosis. Choice C is incorrect as NPH insulin peak time is not directly related to skipping a bedtime snack. Choice D is incorrect as sugar in the urine typically indicates hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

2. A client with type 2 DM is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.
• D. Take the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction when taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because missing a meal does not mean the medication should be avoided; the client should still take it with the next meal. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime.

3. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a potassium value at this level?

• A. The client with colitis
• B. The client with Cushing's syndrome
• C. The client who has been overusing laxatives
• D. The client who has sustained a traumatic burn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients who have sustained traumatic burns are at a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia due to cell lysis. When cells are damaged in a traumatic burn, potassium can leak out from the intracellular space into the bloodstream, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Colitis, Cushing's syndrome, and overuse of laxatives are not typically associated with the same degree of cell damage or potassium shifts seen in traumatic burns, making them less likely to result in such high potassium levels.

4. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate.
• B. Monitor blood glucose every twelve (12) hours.
• C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning.
• D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

5. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

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