HESI RN
Leadership and Management HESI
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin
- B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.
2. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions regarding the administration of alendronate (Fosamax)?
- A. I will take the medication at bedtime to avoid stomach upset.
- B. I will take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning.
- C. I will lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. I will take the medication with food to reduce stomach irritation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food, to enhance absorption.
3. A client tells the RN that he has an IQ of 400+ and is a genius and an inventor. He also reports that he is married to a female movie star and thinks that his brother wants a sexual relationship with her. What is the priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit?
- A. Ineffective sexual patterns.
- B. Impaired environmental interpretation.
- C. Disturbed sensory perception.
- D. Compromised family coping.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit is 'Disturbed sensory perception.' This choice is correct because the client's delusional beliefs about having an IQ of 400+, being a genius and an inventor, being married to a movie star, and suspecting his brother of wanting a sexual relationship with her indicate a significant disturbance in sensory perception. The client's perceptions are not based in reality, indicating a need for immediate intervention to address these distorted beliefs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: 'Ineffective sexual patterns' is not the priority as the client's delusions go beyond just sexual relationships, 'Impaired environmental interpretation' does not capture the primary issue of distorted perceptions, and 'Compromised family coping' is not the priority concern in this scenario compared to the severe sensory perception disturbances displayed by the client.
4. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?
- A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
- B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
- C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
- D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.
5. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?
- A. I know you are capable of giving yourself the insulin.
- B. Giving yourself the injection seems to make you nervous.
- C. When I watched you give yourself the injection, you did it correctly.
- D. Tell me what you want me to do to help you give yourself the injection at home.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because focusing on the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection is likely to reinforce his level of competence without sounding punitive. By acknowledging the client's correct performance during the self-injection, the nurse can boost the client's confidence, encouraging him to assume total responsibility for the daily injections. Choices A, B, and D do not directly highlight the client's competence in self-administration, which may not be as effective in promoting independent self-care.