HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:
- A. Prefers to take insulin orally.
- B. Has type 2 diabetes.
- C. Has type 1 diabetes.
- D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.
2. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
- A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
- D. Provide low-calorie meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), there is a decrease in aldosterone levels, leading to sodium loss and potassium retention. This imbalance results in hyperkalemia, making choice B the correct answer. Hypernatremia (choice A) is unlikely due to sodium loss. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with primary adrenal insufficiency.
4. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child has a history of iron-deficiency anemia. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer iron supplements as prescribed
- B. Monitor the child’s hemoglobin levels
- C. Educate the parents about dietary sources of iron
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child with a history of iron-deficiency anemia presenting with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, the priority action for the nurse is to administer iron supplements as prescribed. Iron supplementation is essential to treat iron-deficiency anemia and improve the child's symptoms promptly. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is important but administering iron supplements takes precedence to address the underlying cause. Educating parents about dietary iron sources is valuable for prevention but not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should not delay the initiation of treatment with iron supplements.
5. During a routine first-trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Recommend explaining the normal physiological changes during pregnancy.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint.
- C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change.
- D. Prepare to provide education on vaginal health.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The increased vaginal discharge described by the pregnant client, which is white, thin, and watery, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is typically normal and attributed to hormonal fluctuations. The nurse should reassure the client that this type of discharge is expected during pregnancy and does not typically indicate an issue requiring medical intervention or treatment.