Nursing Elites

1. The client with type 2 DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

• A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
• B. Improved wound healing.
• C. Reduced need for medication.
• D. Decreased risk of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrolled blood glucose levels are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, leading to atherosclerosis, which can increase the likelihood of heart disease and stroke. Improved wound healing (choice B) is not a consequence of uncontrolled blood glucose levels; in fact, high blood sugar levels can impair wound healing. Reduced need for medication (choice C) is inaccurate because uncontrolled blood glucose usually necessitates more medication to manage the condition. Decreased risk of infection (choice D) is also misleading as high blood glucose levels can compromise the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections.

2. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when asked for it.
• B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
• C. When working with a manager with poor leadership skills, transferring to a different unit is the best option.
• D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when conversing with coworkers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is by assisting the manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses. By doing so, the follower helps build a good working relationship with the manager, fostering mutual growth and development. Choice A is not the best option as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, which may not necessarily contribute to 'managing up.' Choice C is incorrect because transferring to a different unit should not be the first solution when dealing with a manager with poor leadership skills; instead, efforts should be made to improve the current working relationship. Choice D, while important, focuses more on showing respect and appreciation rather than actively helping the manager improve, which is key to 'managing up.'

3. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

5. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

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