HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. While taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), a client should be instructed to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?
- A. Nausea
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Sore throat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be educated about potential blood disorders associated with the medication. Early signs of these disorders include symptoms like sore throat, fever, and pallor. If the client experiences any of these symptoms, they should promptly notify their healthcare provider. Nausea, diarrhea, and headache are common side effects of TMP-SMZ that usually do not require immediate medical attention.
2. Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication?
- A. To take the medication after meals
- B. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing
- C. To call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs
- D. To restrict alcohol intake with this medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cycloserine requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitor for neurotoxicity. The medication must be taken after meals, and the client should avoid alcohol. Additionally, the client should report any signs of skin rash or central nervous system toxicity to the healthcare provider.
3. A client is prescribed calcium gluconate after thyroidectomy. The medication is most likely prescribed to:
- A. Treat thyroid storm.
- B. Prevent cardiac irritability.
- C. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
- D. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently removed or damaged, leading to a decrease in calcium levels and potentially causing hypocalcemic tetany. Calcium gluconate is given to supplement calcium levels and prevent or treat hypocalcemia-related symptoms, such as muscle spasms and tetany.
4. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Decreased peripheral edema
- D. Decreased blood glucose level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water by increasing the permeability of kidney collecting ducts to water, resulting in decreased urinary output. Therefore, the therapeutic response expected after administering desmopressin for diabetes insipidus is a reduction in urinary output.
5. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
- B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
- C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.
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