Nursing Elites

1. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Client becomes increasingly lethargic
• B. Client's respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute
• C. Client responds to verbal stimuli
• D. Client's pupils are equal and reactive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lethargy is a sign of worsening intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening in clients with brain injuries. As ICP rises, it can lead to decreased level of consciousness, such as lethargy or even coma. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of increased ICP. A normal respiratory rate, response to verbal stimuli, and equal reactive pupils do not specifically point towards increased intracranial pressure.

3. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
• D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery, and their blood glucose level is 280 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• B. Delay surgery until the blood glucose is below 180 mg/dL.
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
• D. Administer IV fluids to flush excess glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer insulin as prescribed. In clients with diabetes, high blood glucose levels can increase the risk of infection and impair healing after surgery. Administering insulin as prescribed helps reduce blood glucose to a safer level before surgery, preventing complications. Choice B is incorrect because delaying surgery without addressing the high blood glucose level does not address the immediate issue. Choice C is incorrect as checking the client's hemoglobin A1C level is not the priority when dealing with acute high blood glucose levels before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as administering IV fluids may help with hydration but does not directly address the high blood glucose level that needs immediate attention.

5. While assessing a client who is admitted with heart failure and pulmonary edema, the nurse identifies dependent peripheral edema, an irregular heart rate, and a persistent cough that produces pink blood-tinged sputum. After initiating continuous telemetry and positioning the client, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer prescribed diuretics
• B. Prepare for intubation
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• D. Obtain sputum sample

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's cough producing pink, frothy sputum is indicative of pulmonary edema, which needs immediate treatment. Obtaining a sputum sample helps identify any infection that may be contributing to the pulmonary issues. Administering diuretics is essential in managing pulmonary edema but obtaining a sputum sample should take priority. Intubation may be necessary in severe cases but is not the initial intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to diagnose and treat the condition is crucial.

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