HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client reports gastrointestinal upset after taking oral tetracycline. Which snack should the nurse recommend?
- A. Yogurt with fruit
- B. Toast with jelly
- C. Crackers with peanut butter
- D. Oatmeal with raisins
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Toast with jelly. Tetracycline can cause gastrointestinal upset when taken with dairy products. Yogurt with fruit (Choice A) contains dairy, which can worsen the gastrointestinal upset. Crackers with peanut butter (Choice C) and oatmeal with raisins (Choice D) are also not the best choices as they may not be gentle enough on the stomach. Toast with jelly is a simple snack that does not contain dairy and is less likely to exacerbate the gastrointestinal upset.
2. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions regarding the administration of alendronate (Fosamax)?
- A. I will take the medication at bedtime to avoid stomach upset.
- B. I will take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning.
- C. I will lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. I will take the medication with food to reduce stomach irritation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food, to enhance absorption.
3. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
- B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
- C. Administer platelet transfusion.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.
4. A client with type 1 diabetes reports blurry vision. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Assess the client’s most recent blood glucose levels.
- B. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
- C. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypertension.
- D. Examine the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Blurry vision in clients with type 1 diabetes may indicate hyperglycemia, which requires prompt assessment of recent blood glucose levels to determine the cause and appropriate intervention. Checking the client’s hemoglobin A1C level (Choice B) is useful for assessing long-term glucose control, not for immediate management of blurry vision. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important in diabetes care but is not the most crucial assessment when blurry vision is reported. Examining the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy (Choice D) is important in diabetic foot care but is not the priority when dealing with blurry vision.
5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.
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