HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of facial edema. He reports that he has been voiding small amounts of dark, cloudy, tea-colored urine. The parents state that their son had a sore throat 2 weeks earlier, but it has resolved. After assessing the child's vital signs and weight, what intervention should the nurse implement next?
- A. Perform an otoscopic examination
- B. Measure the child's abdominal girth
- C. Collect a urine specimen for routine urinalysis
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for serum electrolytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis is the next appropriate intervention. The symptoms described, including facial edema and tea-colored urine, are indicative of glomerulonephritis, a condition affecting the kidneys. A urine specimen can help assess renal function and the presence of blood and protein in the urine, which are common in glomerulonephritis. Performing an otoscopic examination (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Measuring the child's abdominal girth (Choice B) is not necessary at this point as it does not directly address the urinary symptoms. Obtaining a blood specimen for serum electrolytes (Choice D) may provide information about electrolyte imbalances but is not the most appropriate initial step in this case.
2. Which assessment finding of a postmenopausal woman necessitates a referral by the nurse to the healthcare provider for evaluation of thyroid functioning?
- A. Cold sensitivity.
- B. Hot flashes.
- C. Weight gain.
- D. Dry skin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cold sensitivity. Cold sensitivity is a common symptom of hypothyroidism, a condition that affects the thyroid gland's ability to produce enough hormones. As a postmenopausal woman presents with cold sensitivity, it may indicate an underlying thyroid issue. Hot flashes (choice B) are more commonly associated with menopause than thyroid dysfunction. While weight gain (choice C) and dry skin (choice D) can also be symptoms of thyroid disorders, cold sensitivity is more specific and indicative of hypothyroidism, requiring prompt evaluation by a healthcare provider.
3. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with jaundice and ascites, which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
- B. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
- C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with impaired liver function and can lead to mental status changes. Serum bilirubin (Choice A) is elevated in cirrhosis but not as concerning for acute intervention as high ammonia levels. Serum albumin (Choice B) and serum sodium (Choice D) levels are important in cirrhotic patients but are not as directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy as ammonia levels.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. This increases the risk of hyperkalemia, making it crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy primarily affects red blood cell production, not hemoglobin, white blood cell count, or serum calcium levels.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
- B. Temperature of 100.4°F
- C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
- D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.
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