HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
- B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
- C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
- D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Crepitus around the insertion site
- C. Subcutaneous emphysema
- D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the most critical finding requiring immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can lead to respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 94% is slightly low but may not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be a normal finding post-procedure. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube output and does not indicate an immediate concern.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Elevated hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Crackles in the lungs
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is a sign of increased central venous pressure but is not as concerning as pulmonary congestion. Crackles in the lungs (Choice B) are common in heart failure due to fluid accumulation but are not as immediately concerning as severe shortness of breath. Peripheral edema (Choice D) is a manifestation of fluid retention in the body but is less indicative of acute pulmonary distress compared to shortness of breath.
5. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter who found him unresponsive. Initial assessment indicated that the client has minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Notify the client's minister of his condition.
- B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
- C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
- D. Discuss the possibility of organ donation with the family.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying whether the client has an executed living will is crucial to ensuring that his treatment preferences are followed. In this critical situation, knowing the client's wishes regarding medical interventions is paramount. Options A, C, and D are not the highest priority as they do not directly address the immediate need to determine the client's treatment preferences.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access