Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
• B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
• C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
• D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.

2. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

• A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
• B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
• C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
• D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.

3. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately after. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

• A. 1000 ml
• B. 800 ml
• C. 760 ml
• D. 500 ml

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. One liter equals 1000 ml. As the client vomited immediately after drinking, she would have expelled approximately 240 ml (1 cup). Subtracting this from the initial intake of 1000 ml gives us 760 ml as the remaining fluid intake that should be documented. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation of subtracting the amount vomited from the initial intake.

4. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output
• C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.

5. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

• A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
• B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
• C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
• D. In need of immediate medical intervention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.

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