Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
• B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
• C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
• D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.

2. The nurse discovers that an elderly client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?

• A. Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation
• B. Dietary intake of magnesium-rich foods
• C. Use of magnesium-containing supplements
• D. History of alcohol use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Frequent use of magnesium-containing laxatives can lead to hypermagnesemia, particularly in elderly clients. Option B, dietary intake of magnesium-rich foods, may contribute to elevated serum magnesium levels but is less likely the cause in this scenario. Option C, the use of magnesium-containing supplements, can also contribute to hypermagnesemia but is not as common in elderly clients without a history of using such supplements. Option D, history of alcohol use, is less relevant to the development of elevated serum magnesium levels compared to laxative use for chronic constipation.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Elevated hemoglobin
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the kidneys and other organs. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD but may not be as acutely concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice C) can be an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and is not necessarily concerning. Low urine output (choice D) is important to monitor in CKD but may not be as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure in this context.

4. The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting
• B. A 5-year-old with a broken arm
• C. A 7-year-old with minor abrasions
• D. A 9-year-old with a twisted ankle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Projectile vomiting in a child with a headache could indicate increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D do not present with symptoms indicating potentially life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention.

5. A client who is at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. After a 6-gram loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered, an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams/hour is initiated. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
• B. Blood pressure of 138/88
• C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
• D. Temperature of 99.8°F

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour indicates that the kidneys are being affected by the high level of magnesium sulfate. This decreased urine output can lead to magnesium toxicity and impaired kidney function. Blood pressure of 138/88 is within normal limits for pregnancy and does not indicate an immediate concern related to magnesium sulfate. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal, and a temperature of 99.8°F is slightly elevated but not a priority in the context of severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate administration.

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