Nursing Elites

1. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the client's urine output hourly
• B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
• D. Start the 24-hour urine collection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.

2. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
• C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
• D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.

3. A client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is teaching dietary modifications. What should be limited in this client's diet?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Fats
• C. Proteins
• D. Vitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, proteins should be limited in the diet. When the kidneys are not functioning well, the buildup of protein byproducts can put additional stress on them. Limiting protein intake can help reduce the burden on the kidneys. Carbohydrates and fats do not need to be restricted in the same way as proteins. Vitamins are essential nutrients that should not be limited in the diet unless specified by a healthcare provider for a specific reason.

4. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Another nurse enters the room in response to the call. After checking the client's pulse and respirations, what should be the function of the second nurse?

• A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
• B. Go get the code cart
• C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
• D. Validate the client's advanced directive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The second nurse should assist with compressions or breathing to ensure the patient receives adequate care during CPR. This immediate intervention is crucial in maintaining blood circulation and oxygenation to vital organs. Choice A is incorrect because simply relieving the nurse performing CPR may lead to a delay in essential life-saving measures. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on providing direct assistance rather than fetching equipment. Choice D is incorrect as validating the client's advanced directive is not the priority in this emergency situation.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has COPD and chest pain related to a recent fall. What nursing intervention requires the greatest caution when caring for a client with COPD?

• A. Administering narcotics for pain relief
• B. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Applying oxygen therapy at a high flow rate
• D. Assisting the client with deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applying oxygen therapy at a high flow rate. In clients with COPD, high levels of supplemental oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe, leading to carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. Oxygen therapy must be administered cautiously to prevent worsening respiratory status. Administering narcotics for pain relief (Choice A) can be necessary but should be done judiciously. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and assisting with deep breathing exercises (Choice D) are generally beneficial interventions for clients with COPD and should not require the same level of caution as high-flow oxygen therapy.

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