HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's urine output hourly
- B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
- D. Start the 24-hour urine collection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.
2. A child who is admitted to the hospital with anemia is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. The nurse anticipates the child developing which acid-base imbalance?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Respiratory acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the child is hyperventilating, which leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide. This loss of carbon dioxide causes respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a decrease in pH and bicarbonate levels due to conditions like kidney disease. Respiratory acidosis is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. Metabolic alkalosis results from a loss of acid or an increase in bicarbonate levels.
3. A client is being prepared for a colonoscopy. Into which position does the nurse assist the client for the procedure?
- A. Left Sims' position
- B. Lithotomy position
- C. Knee-chest position
- D. Right Sims' position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a colonoscopy, the client is positioned in the left Sims' position. This position is chosen as it optimally utilizes the client’s anatomy to facilitate the introduction of the colonoscope. The lithotomy position (Choice B) is commonly used for gynecological exams, not colonoscopies. The knee-chest position (Choice C) is typically employed for rectal examinations or certain surgical procedures, not colonoscopies. The right Sims' position (Choice D) is a less common position for colonoscopy compared to the left Sims' position.
4. Which strategy should the nurse implement when teaching a client with low literacy about a new diagnosis of hypertension?
- A. Provide a detailed handout with complex terms
- B. Use simple language and visual aids
- C. Encourage the client to research the diagnosis online
- D. Incorporate medical jargon to explain the condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct strategy for teaching a client with low literacy about a new diagnosis of hypertension is to use simple language and visual aids. This approach helps ensure better understanding of the diagnosis and treatment plan by making the information clear and accessible. Providing a detailed handout with complex terms (Choice A) would not be suitable as it may confuse the client further. Encouraging the client to research the diagnosis online (Choice C) could lead to misinformation and overwhelm the client with information they may not understand. Incorporating medical jargon to explain the condition (Choice D) would not be helpful for a client with low literacy as it may complicate rather than clarify the information.
5. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?
- A. Maintain cold packs on the perineum for 24 hours.
- B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
- C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infants.
- D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.