HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's urine output hourly
- B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
- D. Start the 24-hour urine collection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.
2. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Obtain a urine sample from the bedpan.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Measure the client's oral temperature.
- D. Remove dressing and assess surgical site.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Encourage a diet low in carbohydrates and fats.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach and kale.
- C. Increase salt intake to prevent dehydration.
- D. Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.
4. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
- B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
- C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
- D. Administer a stronger medication as requested
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.
5. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?
- A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
- B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
- C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
- D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.
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