HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's urine output hourly
- B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
- D. Start the 24-hour urine collection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.
2. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor potassium levels.
- B. Monitor sodium levels.
- C. Monitor calcium levels.
- D. Monitor magnesium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
3. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.
4. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?
- A. Presence of viral symptoms
- B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
- C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
- D. History of opportunistic infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.
5. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the feeding and provide IV fluids.
- B. Dilute the feeding to half strength and continue at the same rate.
- C. Reduce the feeding rate and monitor for improvement.
- D. Add fiber to the client's diet to resolve diarrhea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.
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