after an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity the healthcare provider prescribes a 24 hour creatinine clearance test before starting the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.

2. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

3. A client is admitted with a severe burn injury. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. In a client with severe burn injury, the priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to prevent shock. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not the priority. Applying cool, moist compresses (Choice C) can be beneficial but is not the priority over fluid resuscitation. Covering the burn area with a sterile dressing (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the immediate priority in managing severe burns.

4. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.

5. Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important dietary instruction for a client with renal disease is to limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day. This is essential to prevent fluid overload, manage electrolyte balance, and reduce strain on the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because while protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, avoiding all protein-rich foods is not recommended as some protein intake is essential for overall health. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake is generally not advised for clients with renal disease, as they often need to limit potassium intake. Choice D is also incorrect because while consuming small, frequent meals may be helpful, emphasizing a diet high in carbohydrates is not typically the primary focus for clients with renal disease.

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