HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe, piercing abdominal pain and an elevated serum amylase. Which additional information is the client most likely to report to the nurse?
- A. Pain radiates to the back
- B. Nausea and vomiting without relief
- C. Abdominal pain decreases when lying supine
- D. Abdominal pain is worse after eating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In acute pancreatitis, abdominal pain typically worsens after eating due to the stimulation of the pancreas to release enzymes that irritate the inflamed tissues. Pain relief when lying supine is uncommon and usually exacerbates discomfort. While nausea and vomiting are common symptoms, they are not as indicative of changes in pain intensity. Pain radiating to the back is characteristic but does not specifically relate to exacerbation post-eating.
2. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
- D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.
3. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
- B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while holding the infant
- C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
- D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held is the most appropriate intervention to assess his current condition. This action allows the nurse to gather important information regarding the cardiovascular and respiratory status of the infant, which is crucial in evaluating his post-surgical recovery and overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as stimulating the infant to cry intentionally is not necessary and could cause distress. Option C is incorrect as the infant's growth is within the expected range, indicating no signs of failure to thrive. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention needed in this situation; assessing the heart and lungs through auscultation is more immediate and informative.
4. Before administering a client's medication, the nurse assesses a change in the client's condition and decides to withhold the medication until consulting with the healthcare provider. After consultation with the healthcare provider, the dose of the medication is changed, and the nurse administers the newly prescribed dose an hour later than the originally scheduled time. What action should the nurse take in response to this situation?
- A. Notify the charge nurse that a medication error occurred.
- B. Submit a medication variance report to the supervisor.
- C. Document the events that occurred in the nurse's notes.
- D. Discard the original medication administration record.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse acted appropriately by withholding the medication, consulting with the healthcare provider, and administering the newly prescribed dose, albeit with a delay. The correct course of action for the nurse is to document all these events in the nurse's notes. Documenting the sequence of actions taken is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's care, ensuring transparency, and providing essential information for future reference and continuity of care. Notifying the charge nurse or submitting a medication variance report may not be necessary as the situation was managed appropriately, and discarding the original medication administration record is not recommended as it is part of the client's medical record and should be kept for documentation purposes.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles is most concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates increased work of breathing, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is acceptable in a client with COPD. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in clients with COPD due to underlying lung changes but do not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.