Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate intervention by the RN to address a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks to see if the door is locked and asks for reassurance?

• A. Set a specific limit on the number of times the client can check the door.
• B. Help the client find an alternative activity to perform.
• C. Provide consistent reassurance that the door is locked.
• D. Ignore the checking behavior and focus on other behaviors.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a specific limit on the checking behavior is the most appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly checks the door and seeks reassurance. This approach helps the client gradually reduce the compulsive behavior, promotes independence, and supports progress in treatment. Choice B is not the most suitable intervention as it does not directly address the compulsive checking behavior. Choice C, providing consistent reassurance, may reinforce the compulsive behavior and hinder treatment progress. Choice D of ignoring the behavior does not actively assist the client in managing their symptoms and addressing the underlying disorder.

2. An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?

• A. Sore throat
• B. Weight loss
• C. Constipation
• D. Lightheadedness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.

3. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.

5. To evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral techniques, which client outcomes should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Relates insights into problematic relationships
• B. Demonstrates a healthy relationship with her husband
• C. Describes how the family can resolve problems
• D. Changes thought patterns related to problem-solving

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on changing thought patterns by guiding the client to engage in problem-solving strategies to address the current situation. This approach helps individuals modify negative thinking patterns and develop more adaptive ways to cope with challenges. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they may be important aspects to consider in therapy, the primary focus in cognitive-behavioral therapy is on identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than exploring relationships or family problem-solving skills.

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