Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which finding should the RN report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Elevated BUN levels may indicate renal impairment, which is crucial to report for clients on lithium due to its potential kidney effects. Option A, a serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range for lithium and does not require immediate reporting. Option C, a serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D, urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours, may indicate a need for further assessment but is not the most critical finding to report compared to potential renal impairment indicated by an elevated BUN level.

2. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
• B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
• C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
• D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
• B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
• C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
• D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

4. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
• D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.

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