Nursing Elites

1. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation
• B. Notify the healthcare provider from the client’s bedside
• C. Obtain written consent for an emergency cesarean section
• D. Draw a blood sample for stat hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.

2. When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?

• A. At 16 weeks gestation.
• B. At 20 weeks gestation.
• C. At 24 weeks gestation.
• D. At 30 weeks gestation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best time for the couple to attend childbirth preparation classes is around 30 weeks gestation, which is during the third trimester. Attending classes at this time allows the couple to learn essential information and skills as labor and delivery are approaching, maximizing the benefit of the classes. Option A is too early in the second trimester, and the couple might forget important details by the time labor approaches. Option B is also early in the second trimester, and attending later allows for better preparation. Option C is still in the second trimester, and waiting until the third trimester provides more practical knowledge closer to delivery.

3. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
• B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
• C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
• D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

4. When a client delivers a viable infant but experiences excessive uncontrolled vaginal bleeding after the IV Pitocin infusion, what information is most important for the nurse to provide when notifying the healthcare provider?

• A. Maternal blood pressure
• B. Estimated blood loss
• C. Length of labor
• D. Amount of IV fluids administered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is experiencing excessive uncontrolled vaginal bleeding post-delivery, the most crucial information for the nurse to provide the healthcare provider is the maternal blood pressure. Maternal blood pressure can help assess the severity of the bleeding and guide immediate interventions to stabilize the client's condition. Estimated blood loss, length of labor, and amount of IV fluids administered are important pieces of information but in this scenario, maternal blood pressure takes precedence as it directly indicates the client's current hemodynamic status.

5. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?

• A. Autosomal dominant
• B. Autosomal recessive
• C. X-linked recessive
• D. Mitochondrial

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.

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