a 36 week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding her abdomen is rigid and tender to
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.

2. A new mother asks the LPN/LVN, 'How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?' Which explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adequate voiding is a sign that the baby is receiving enough milk. Pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day indicates proper hydration and nutrition. This is a reliable indicator of adequate breast milk intake for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain alone may not always indicate sufficient milk intake. Choice C is incorrect because supplementing with bottle milk can interfere with establishing breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests switching to bottle feeding, which is not necessary if the baby is latching and voiding well.

3. A new mother who is breastfeeding her 4-week-old infant and has type 1 diabetes reports that her insulin needs have decreased since the birth of her child. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. During breastfeeding, insulin needs often decrease due to the metabolic demands of milk production. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client that this decrease in insulin requirements is a normal response to breastfeeding. Choice B is incorrect as increasing caloric intake is not directly related to the decrease in insulin needs during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to breastfeed more frequently does not address the issue of decreased insulin needs. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling an appointment with the diabetic nurse educator is not necessary at this point since the decreased need for insulin is a common physiological response to breastfeeding.

4. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

5. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

Similar Questions

The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
A client is admitted to the postpartum unit and tells the nurse she had rheumatic fever as a child, which resulted in some 'heart damage'. The nurse knows that this client is at particular risk for developing heart failure during the immediate postpartum period. Based on the client's history, which nursing problem has the highest priority?
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