Nursing Elites

1. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation
• B. Notify the healthcare provider from the client’s bedside
• C. Obtain written consent for an emergency cesarean section
• D. Draw a blood sample for stat hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.

2. In developing a teaching plan for expectant parents, the nurse plans to include information about when the parents can expect the infant's fontanels to close. The LPN/LVN bases the explanation on knowledge that for the normal newborn, the

• A. anterior fontanel closes at 2 to 4 months and the posterior by the end of the first week.
• B. anterior fontanel closes at 5 to 7 months and the posterior by the end of the second week.
• C. anterior fontanel closes at 8 to 11 months and the posterior by the end of the first month.
• D. anterior fontanel closes at 12 to 18 months and the posterior by the end of the second month.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The anterior fontanel typically closes between 12 to 18 months, while the posterior fontanel usually closes by the end of the second month. It is important for parents to know these timeframes as it helps in monitoring the normal growth and development of their newborn. Delayed closure of fontanels may indicate potential health issues, and early closure may also warrant further evaluation by healthcare providers.

3. The nurse is assessing a newborn who was precipitously delivered at 38 weeks' gestation. The newborn is tremulous, tachycardic, and hypertensive. Which assessment action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Perform a gestational age assessment.
• B. Obtain a drug screen for cocaine.
• C. Determine reactivity of neonatal reflexes.
• D. Weigh and measure the newborn.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a drug screen for cocaine. Tremulousness, tachycardia, and hypertension in a newborn can be signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome, often caused by maternal drug use, such as cocaine. Identifying maternal drug use is crucial for appropriate management and treatment of the newborn.

4. A full-term infant is transferred to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to receive when planning immediate care for the newborn?

• A. Length of labor and method of delivery.
• B. Infant's condition at birth and treatment received.
• C. Feeding method chosen by the parents.
• D. History of drugs given to the mother during labor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a full-term infant is transferred to the nursery, the most crucial information for the LPN/LVN to receive for immediate care planning is the infant's condition at birth and any treatments received. This data helps in determining the initial care needs and monitoring requirements for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical as the infant's condition at birth and treatment received. The length of labor and method of delivery may provide background information but may not be as essential for immediate care planning. The feeding method chosen by the parents and the history of drugs given to the mother during labor are important but do not take precedence over knowing the infant's condition and treatment received.

5. A 4-year-old boy presents with a rash and is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). What is the most appropriate intervention to manage this condition?

• A. Administer oral acyclovir.
• B. Apply calamine lotion to soothe itching.
• C. Encourage scratching to relieve itching.
• D. Encourage bed rest to avoid spreading the rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing varicella (chickenpox) in a 4-year-old child is to apply calamine lotion to soothe itching. Calamine lotion helps alleviate the itching associated with the chickenpox rash, providing relief to the child. It is important to discourage scratching to prevent complications such as scarring or secondary bacterial infections. Encouraging bed rest can be beneficial for comfort but is not the primary intervention to manage chickenpox.

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