HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- B. Take the medication at the same time every day to maintain consistent thyroid levels.
- C. Expect increased sensitivity to cold as a side effect of the medication.
- D. Increase the dosage of levothyroxine if symptoms worsen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levothyroxine should be taken at the same time every day to maintain stable thyroid hormone levels and ensure effective management of hypothyroidism. Consistent dosing is critical for preventing fluctuations in hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because increased sensitivity to cold is not a common side effect of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous and should not be done independently.
2. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
- A. Have him drink several glasses of water
- B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
- C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
- D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.
3. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
- A. We will call the health care provider if the child develops acne.
- B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
- C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occur.
- D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.
4. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?
- A. The client reports feeling short of breath.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
- D. The client is unable to complete sentences without pausing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.
5. The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate
- B. Apply a warm compress to the left leg
- C. Elevate the client's left leg
- D. Administer a prescribed anticoagulant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is a priority intervention for a client with suspected DVT. This action helps prevent the thrombus from dislodging and causing further complications. Encouraging ambulation may dislodge the clot, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Applying a warm compress can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging the clot. Administering anticoagulants is essential but should not be the first action as elevation helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with DVT.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access