Nursing Elites

1. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.

2. A client on mechanical ventilation is experiencing high-pressure alarms. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
• B. Assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction.
• C. Reposition the client to relieve pressure.
• D. Suction the client's airway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction. When a client on mechanical ventilation experiences high-pressure alarms, the first action should be to check for any potential obstructions in the airway, which can trigger the alarms. Checking the oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but not the priority when dealing with high-pressure alarms. Repositioning the client (Choice C) may be necessary later but should not be the initial action. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) should only be done after assessing for and addressing any obstructions in the endotracheal tube.

3. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

4. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

• A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
• B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
• C. The client will perform foot care daily
• D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.

5. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
• B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
• D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.

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