Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children for a few days.
• B. I may experience dry mouth and taste changes for a few days.
• C. I may experience some neck swelling.
• D. I should expect to have no side effects.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D.' The client stating 'I should expect to have no side effects' indicates a need for further teaching as it is incorrect. With radioactive iodine therapy, side effects like dry mouth, taste changes, and neck swelling are common. Choices A and B are correct statements; the client should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children due to radiation exposure, and dry mouth and taste changes are common side effects. Choice C is also correct, making D the correct answer.

2. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

4. A community health nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a diabetes management program. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased attendance at diabetes education sessions
• B. reduced incidence of diabetes-related hospitalizations
• C. higher rates of blood glucose monitoring among participants
• D. greater knowledge of diabetes management techniques

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: reduced incidence of diabetes-related hospitalizations. This outcome is a strong indicator of successful diabetes management, as it suggests that participants are effectively controlling their condition and experiencing fewer severe complications that require hospitalization. Increased attendance at education sessions (choice A) may not directly correlate with improved health outcomes. While higher rates of blood glucose monitoring (choice C) are important, they alone may not reflect overall program success. Greater knowledge of diabetes management techniques (choice D) is valuable but does not directly measure the impact of the program on health outcomes like reduced hospitalizations.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
• B. The client's arm is warm and red.
• C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
• D. There is no bruit on auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

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