HESI RN
Community Health HESI
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
- D. Productive cough with green sputum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.
2. The home health nurse visits a young male client with AIDS who has Kaposi's sarcoma and peripheral neuropathies. His parents, who are the caregivers, tell the nurse that their son sleeps most of the time. The nurse assesses that the client is semi-conscious with stable vital signs, cries out in pain when turned or moved, has a Duragesic pain patch in place, and skin lesions that are closed and dried. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. remove the Duragesic patch as directed by the prescription
- B. give the client a complete bed bath to further assess the client's condition
- C. discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents
- D. call for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with AIDS is showing signs of being in a critical condition - semi-conscious, in pain, and with stable vital signs. The appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement is to discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents. Given the client's symptoms, the presence of a pain patch, and the closed and dried skin lesions, it is essential to address end-of-life care planning. Removing the Duragesic patch without proper authorization can lead to inadequate pain management and should not be done without consulting the healthcare provider. Giving a complete bed bath is not the priority in this situation as it does not address the immediate needs of the client. Calling for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately may not be necessary if the client is stable; instead, the focus should be on providing appropriate support and having critical discussions about the client's care preferences.
3. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?
- A. Drinks adequate fluids.
- B. Void without difficulty.
- C. Feels less thirsty.
- D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.
5. The school nurse is coaching a group of high school students on ways to deal with the stress of final exams. Today the class is focusing on healthy food choices for lunch in the school cafeteria. Which option should the nurse recommend?
- A. cheeseburger on a whole wheat bun, French fries, and a large cola beverage
- B. tuna casserole with peas and corn, a fresh apple, crackers, and orange juice
- C. fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea
- D. chef salad with turkey, ham, and ranch dressing, apple juice, and milk
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The recommended option for managing stress during final exams is a balanced and nutritious meal. Fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea offer a variety of nutrients and antioxidants that can help combat stress. Option A is not ideal as it includes high-fat and high-calorie foods. Option B is a good choice, but Option C provides a wider range of nutrients and hydration. Option D is a healthy choice with a variety of proteins and vitamins, but Option C offers lighter options that may be easier to digest during stressful times.
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