HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?
- A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
- B. Report increased bruising or bleeding
- C. Stop medication if a cough develops
- D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to thrombocytopenia, a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Instructing the client to report any signs of increased bruising or bleeding is crucial for monitoring and managing this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - Increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects of enalapril. C - Developing a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it does not warrant stopping the medication unless advised by a healthcare provider. D - Limiting intake of leafy green vegetables is not necessary with enalapril unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider for individual reasons.
2. A client with a history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Check the client's blood glucose level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are critical in the treatment of DKA. While administering intravenous fluids is essential to manage dehydration, insulin takes precedence in treating the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function but is not the primary intervention in managing DKA. Checking the client's blood glucose level is necessary, but administering insulin to reduce high blood glucose levels is the key priority in treating DKA.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant in assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical in this scenario.
4. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that symptoms of an acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction
- C. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse
- D. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. During an acute asthma episode, bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation occur, leading to difficulty breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm (Choice A) are part of the pathophysiology of asthma but do not fully explain the symptoms during an acute episode. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction (Choice B) are also seen in asthma but are not the primary cause of acute symptoms. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse (Choice C) are not typical features of an acute asthma episode.
5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Crackles in the lungs
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.
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