HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. Which task could be safely delegated by the nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Accompanying a client who self-administers insulin
- B. Cleansing and dressing a small decubitus ulcer
- C. Monitoring a client's response to passive range of motion exercises
- D. Applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because tasks like applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch are within the UAP's scope of practice, as they do not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex assessments or interventions that require clinical judgment and should be performed by licensed nursing staff.
2. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess the client's temperature.
- B. Place a mask on the client.
- C. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
- D. Determine the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.
3. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
- C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
- D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is deteriorating?
- A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- B. Temperature of 99.5°F (37.5°C)
- C. Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a sign of worsening septic shock. Hypotension can lead to organ failure and requires immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice A), mild fever (choice B), and slightly increased respiratory rate (choice D) are common in septic shock and may not necessarily indicate a deteriorating condition as much as hypotension does.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?
- A. Monitor for a persistent cough.
- B. Monitor for bradycardia and dizziness.
- C. Report any signs of swelling or difficulty breathing.
- D. Monitor for headache and blurred vision.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.
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