after teaching a client with hypertension secondary to renal disease the nurse assesses the clients understanding which statement made by the client i
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam

1. After educating a client with hypertension secondary to renal disease, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is incorrect because the client should not restrict fluids during the day due to increased urination at night. Clients with renal disease may be prescribed fluid restrictions, and they should be thoroughly assessed for potential dehydration. To decrease increased nocturnal voiding, clients should consume fluids earlier in the day. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Managing blood pressure is crucial to slow the progression of renal dysfunction. Limiting protein intake is important in renal disease management, and clients should be referred to a dietitian as needed. Taking antihypertensive medications as directed is essential for blood pressure control.

2. After pericardiocentesis for cardiac tamponade, for which signs should the nurse assess the client to determine if tamponade is recurring?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After pericardiocentesis for cardiac tamponade, the nurse should assess for distant muffled heart sounds that were noted before the procedure. If these sounds return, it could indicate recurring pericardial effusion and potential tamponade. Therefore, the correct answer is the return of distant muffled heart sounds (Option C). Decreasing pulse (Option A) and falling central venous pressure (Option D) are not specific signs of recurring tamponade. Rising blood pressure (Option B) is also not a typical sign of tamponade recurrence; in fact, hypotension is more commonly associated with tamponade.

3. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.

4. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.

5. The client with chronic renal failure who is on a low-sodium diet should avoid which of the following foods?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Canned soups are high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention and hypertension in clients with chronic renal failure who are on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, lean meats, and whole grain bread are generally lower in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Lean meats provide essential protein, fresh fruits offer vitamins and minerals, and whole grain bread provides fiber, making them suitable choices for individuals with chronic renal failure.

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