the healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant im every 8 hours the vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mgml after reconstitution
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A client is admitted with a suspected bowel obstruction. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel is a concerning sign that suggests a complication such as bowel perforation, which requires immediate intervention. Absent bowel sounds can be expected in bowel obstructions but are not as urgent as a rigid abdomen. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting are common with bowel obstructions but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping are more indicative of bowel obstruction rather than a complication requiring immediate attention.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.

4. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.

5. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, a weight gain of 4.4 lbs in 24 hours, and an elevated central venous pressure for a client with full-thickness burns. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated CVP and sudden weight gain indicate fluid overload, which can strain the heart. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate is crucial as electrolyte imbalances and fluid shifts after burns can lead to cardiac complications. Monitoring the heart rate is a priority to detect any cardiac distress early. While reviewing urine output and administering diuretics are important interventions, they should come after ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable. Increasing oral fluid intake may exacerbate the fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.

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