HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?
- A. 3 ml.
- B. 0.4 ml.
- C. 1.2 ml.
- D. 0.9 ml.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
2. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Readjust the traction
- C. Administer the ordered PRN medication
- D. Reassess the foot in fifteen minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A pale foot with no pulse suggests a compromised blood supply, indicating a potential vascular emergency. The nurse's immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider to address the situation promptly. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot later could lead to serious complications due to the compromised blood supply, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this critical situation.
3. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
- B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
- C. Recent history of smoking.
- D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.
4. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?
- A. His daughter's observations suggest the client is depressed
- B. His compulsiveness about food may indicate new cognitive decline
- C. Obsessiveness with food is common in diabetic clients
- D. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications?
- A. Elevate the affected leg
- B. Encourage early ambulation
- C. Perform frequent range-of-motion exercises
- D. Apply ice packs to the affected leg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps to reduce swelling and improve venous return. This intervention is essential for preventing complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging early ambulation is generally beneficial for preventing DVT but is secondary to leg elevation. Performing range-of-motion exercises can be helpful for maintaining joint mobility but is not the priority intervention in this case. Applying ice packs to the affected leg is not recommended in DVT management as it can cause vasoconstriction and potentially worsen the condition.
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