the healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant im every 8 hours the vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mgml after reconstitution
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A client is diagnosed with Meniere's disease. Which problem should the nurse identify as most important in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vertigo is the primary symptom of Meniere's disease and can lead to falls and other injuries. Ensuring safety and addressing the risk of injury is the nurse's top priority. While social isolation and impaired hearing are significant concerns associated with Meniere's disease, the immediate danger of falls due to vertigo takes precedence in the plan of care. Impaired verbal communication, although important, is not as urgent as preventing injuries caused by vertigo.

3. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively following an appendectomy. The nurse should intervene for which abnormal finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% indicate hypoxia and require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60, and a respiratory rate of 16 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation is a critical parameter reflecting the client's oxygenation status.

4. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

5. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.

Similar Questions

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands how to use a rescue inhaler?
The nurse is caring for a 69-year-old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia. Which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
The nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses