the healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant im every 8 hours the vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mgml after reconstitution
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. After a thyroidectomy, which vital sign is the most important for the nurse to monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hypocalcemia. After a thyroidectomy, monitoring for hypocalcemia is crucial because damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery can result in low calcium levels, which may cause life-threatening complications. Monitoring respiratory rate and rhythm (choice A) is important but not the most critical in this situation. Monitoring for elevated body temperature (choice C) is less of a priority post-thyroidectomy. Checking blood pressure every 30 minutes (choice D) is not as vital as monitoring for hypocalcemia in this context.

3. Which task could be safely delegated by the nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because tasks like applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch are within the UAP's scope of practice, as they do not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex assessments or interventions that require clinical judgment and should be performed by licensed nursing staff.

4. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

5. A client scheduled for a bronchoscopy in the morning is anxious and asking the nurse numerous questions about the procedure. Which intervention has the highest priority in preparing the client for the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to write down questions is the highest priority as it allows the nurse to address concerns systematically, reducing anxiety. This approach empowers the client and ensures that all concerns are covered before the procedure, reducing the risk of miscommunication or unaddressed fears. Providing detailed education about the procedure (choice A) is important but may not address the client's immediate anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice B) should only be done if other interventions are ineffective or if prescribed by the healthcare provider. Reassuring the client about the safety of the procedure (choice D) is essential but may not address the specific questions and concerns causing anxiety.

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